On the main page we saw that from A Hebrew point of view
Matt 25:46 “These will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.”
Is better translated as
Matt 25:46 And these shall go away into God’s punishment: but the righteous into God’s life.
On this page we will repeat the same study from the Greek point of view. The conclusion is slightly different but still great; as is everything of God’s Master plan of the ages. Before we look into that I would like to mention that it’s said Matthew was originally written in Hebrew and later translated to Greek.
- Matthew compiled the sayings [of the Lord] in the Aramaic language, and everyone translated them as well as he could”
Papias, bishop of Hieropolis in Asia Minor ~150-170AD - Among the four Gospels, which are the only indisputable ones in the Church of God under heaven, I have learned by tradition that the first was written by Matthew, who was once a publican, but afterwards an apostle of Jesus Christ, and it was prepared for the converts from Judaism and published in the Hebrew language”
Church father Origen ~210AD - For Matthew, who had at first preached to the Hebrews, when he was about to go to other peoples, committed his Gospel to writing in his native tongue, and thus compensated those whom he was obliged to leave for the loss of his presence.
Church father Eusebius: Church History, 3:24 ~315AD - They [The Nazarenes] have the Gospel according to Matthew quite complete in Hebrew, for this Gospel is certainly still preserved among them as it was first written, in Hebrew letters.
Church father Epiphanius: Panarion 29:9:4, 370AD - Matthew, who is also Levi, and from a tax collectore came to be an Apostle first of all evangelists composed a Gospel of Christ in Judea in the Hebrew language and letters, for the benefit of those of the circumcision who had believed, who translated it into Greek is not sufficiently ascertained. Furthermore, the Hebrew itself is preserved to this day in the library at Caesarea, which the martyr Pamphilus so diligently collected. I also was allowed by the Nazarenes who use this volume in the Syrian cityof Borea to copy it. In which is to be remarked that, wherever the evangelist.... makes use of the testimonies of the Old Scripture, he does not follow the authority of the seventy translators, but that of the Hebrew.
Jerome Lives of Illustrious Men, Book 5, ~382AD - I have learned by tradition that the first was written by Matthew, who was once a publican, but afterwards an apostle of Jesus Christ, and it was prepared for the converts from Judaism and published in the Hebrew language.
Church father Eusebius: Church History, 6:25 ~ - His [Matthew's] book was in existence in Caesarea of Palestine, and everyone acknowledges that he wrote it with his hands in Hebrew.
Isho'dad Commentary on the Gospels, ~850AD
Several modern day scholars come to the conclusion that Matthew reads more natural after a one-
Back on topic, Aionios the Greek word we are discussing never carries the meaning of endless. But even if we falsely assume it sometimes does, it doesn't settle the discussion because how we know Matt 24:46 is one of those sometimes? Why didn't Matthew use the Greek word that does mean everlasting -
Rom 1:20 For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, that is, His eternal (aidios) power and divine nature, have been clearly perceived, being understood by what has been made, so that they are without excuse.
Justin Martyr, Ireneus, Origen and Theodore of Mopsuestia used the word as having limited duration. The first two believed that the sinner is annihilated when Aionios-
In 540AD Emperor Justinian in a very lengthy writing in Greek that lays at the formation of the Catholic Church lists all sorts of believes that should be condemned. He never stated Aionios is everlasting. In fact he proves that even during his time it was of limited duration.
“The holy church of Christ teaches an endless aionios (ateleutetos aionios) life to the righteous, and endless (ateleutetos) punishment to the wicked.”
An endless forever, doesn't that sound a bit weird?
So now we know that Aionios was used in a sense of limited duration in the OT, even as short as 3 days in the case of Jonah.
And likewise between 115-
Josephus writes about everlasting/aionios worship in the Temple and in the same sentence he writes that it's already destroyed. How much clearer can it get?
Philo, who was contemporary with Christ, generally used athanaton, ateleuteton or aidion to denote endless, and always used aiónion to describe temporary duration.
Or let's look at some more Greek NT Scripture.
Luke 1:33 And He shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever/aiōn; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.
Rev 1:6 and He made us into a kingdom, priests to His God and Father–to Him be the glory and the dominion forever/aiōn and ever/aiōn. Amen.
Rev 11:15 And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever/aiōn and ever/aiōn.
How more clear can it be? Christ will rule forever! Or not...?
1Cor 15:24 Then comes the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when He shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
The ‘everlasting’ Levitical priesthood ended when Christ became High Priest in the or order of Melchizedek.
Num 25:13 and it shall be for him and for his descendants after him, a covenant of a permanent priesthood, because he was jealous for his God and made atonement for the sons of Israel.’”
Heb 7:11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
Thousands of pages have been written about that word, but I want to wrap this up by simply saying that there are three understandings of "aionios zoe". (bios is natural life and zoe the other kind of life)
1. Everlasting life.
2. Quality/type/source of life. (My preferred interpretation)
3. Age-
All of them are correct, but not of them are a correct translation.
1. Matthew 25:46 isn't about everlasting life, but the life in Heaven indeed is without an end.
2. God is the source of life, so nothing wrong with this view.
3. Not entirely sure about this one. But the intention is correct.
Number 3 may need a little extra explanation. For the sake of simple explanation let's assume the correction/punishment takes 1 year. Then the age-
As a side note unless you believe in annihilation, everyone has everlasting life. The people in heaven have everlasting life. But those being punished also, because if they are dead they won’t even notice any form of punishment.
If you want a more in depth look at this Greek word this old out of copyright book might be of interest to you.
Click to read online or right-
