Editor's note: "Questions Without Answers" was originally an article written in favor of universalism. Don Hewey wrote a rebuttal to the article; his words are in red.
Richard Condon wrote a response to Don Hewey's rebuttal, and his words are shown in blue.

Many people have a very limited view of God's plan of salvation and when approached with questions, are unable to give an answer, or, unable to give a correct answer. This can be, first and foremost, attributed to lack of true Bible study. It can be caused by the bias of denominational beliefs, creeds, other individual interpretations, or from relying on other people to answer for them.

But, what does the Bible have to say about the individual Christian being able to give an answer when questioned? 2 Timothy 2:15 says to:

"Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth."

They are told to "Study," or "be diligent," as some Bibles have it translated. Why? To be "approved unto God" and so as "not to be ashamed" when questions are asked. How and what are they told to study? By "rightly dividing the word of truth," which is the Bible.

Next, look at what the Apostle Peter says concerning questions and answers in 1 Peter 3:15.

"But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts: and be ready always to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you with meekness and fear:"

Within this short verse of Scripture, there are several thoughts that need to be mentioned. These are:

Be READY to give an Answer -- be prepared.

Be ready ALWAYS -- do not put off a Question.

Be ready always to give an answer -- evasion excites suspicion.

Give an answer to EVERY ONE that asks you.

A REASON is asked for -- not an assertion.

1. As we are required to love our enemies, may we not safely infer that God loves His enemies? (Matt. 5:44)
Only those saved by the blood of Jesus Christ can truly indeed love His enemies. Apart from Jesus Christ, we can do nothing. (John 15:5) This answer makes no sense as a response to the question. The questioner asks: Does God call us to a higher standard than He has for Himself? Does God love the world or not? Or, does He only love His friends, those who are saved? Scripture reveals that God's love was expressed on Calvary, and that through the blood of Christ's cross it is God's intention to reconcile all His enemies (John 3:16; Col. 1:20).

2. If God loves His enemies, will He punish them more than will be for their good?
God's love for every single created being does not save, for all have sinned (Romans 3:10, 3:23) and all have fallen short of the glory of God. God righteously punishes those that refused the free gift of salvation for they have no excuse (Romans 1:20). Because they can choose between good and evil (2Peter 2:10). Self-willed means self-willed against God's will (2Peter2:10). When a Christian sins, is this God's will or Man's will?
Again, this answer is not to the point of the question. What is the purpose of God's punishment of men? Is it corrective, or punitive? Don would have us believe that God's love does not save. He does, at least, admit that God loves all of His creatures, but, goes on to assert that God is powerless to save those He loves! Don believes that the creature's will is more powerful than Creator's will. In other words, the creature is supreme; God is not. Scripture reveals, however, that God can do all that He intends to do; no one can withstand the will of God (Dan. 4:35).

3. Would endless punishment be for the good of any being?
Eternal damnation is the righteousness of God (2Thess 1:6, Psalm 94:20), for God cannot sin and cannot lie. An unjust false balance is an abomination as well as not judging sin. (Proverbs 11:1, 16:11, 20:23, et al.) Because they can choose between good and evil (2Peter 2:10). Self-willed means self-willed against God's will (2Peter2:10). When a Christian sins, is this God's will or Man's will?
Again, Don doesn't answer the question. The very verse he uses to defend his statement says the opposite. 2 Thes. 1:6 talks about just recompense. There's no way that eternal punishment, or eternal torment, can be just. How can the sins of a few years as finite man, a creature who never asked to be born at all, be punished for all eternity, and that be called justice? Again, he elevates man's will above God's, as more powerful, and determinative.

4. As God loves His friends, if He loves His enemies also, are not all mankind the objects of His love?
God loves all of His creation. But all have sinned. God cannot be in the presence of sin. Because they can choose between good and evil (2Peter 2:10). Self-willed means self-willed against God's will (2Peter2:10). When a Christian sins, is this God's will or Man's will?
Oh! How he misrepresents God! God loves His creation, Don affirms, but is powerless to save it. This misrepresentation is not the Almighty God of Scripture, Strong to save (Isa. 63:1). He is dangerously close to worshipping the creature and his will above the Creator (Rom 1:25).

5. If God loves those only who love Him, what better is He than the sinner? (Luke 6:32-33)
Absolutely false. God loves all of His creation (John 3:16, 1John 2:2) so much that He sent His Son to die on the cross for our sins, even while we were are still sinners! Mankind sinned. God cannot sin. The problem is man and his sinful nature. Because they can choose between good and evil (2Peter 2:10). Self-willed means self-willed against God's will (2Peter2:10). When a Christian sins, is this God's will or Man's will?
Scripture enjoins us to love our enemies and to be merciful, because that's what God is like (Luke 6:32-36). "Not true," Don Hewey says. Then he repeats his oft-repeated protestations deifying the will of man. If only he believed the verse he quoted (1 John 2:2--"He (Jesus) is the propitiation for our sins, not for ours only but for the sins of the whole world"). All the sins of all mankind, believer and unbeliever alike, have been expiated, atoned for. The price is paid! Salvation is won!

6. As "love thinketh no evil," can God design the ultimate evil of a single soul? (1 Cor. 13:5)
Absolutely not. God's love is perfect beyond human comprehension. God does not force everyone to love Him and confess Him and LORD and Saviour, therefore the fault is with mankind. Because they can choose between good and evil (2Peter 2:10). Self-willed means self-willed against God's will (2Peter2:10). When a Christian sins, is this God's will or Man's will?
[Note the repetition of the answer (#2,#3,#4,#5,#6), something Don criticizes later!] He affirms that God cannot design evil, that His love is "perfect beyond human comprehension," yet he postulates that God created mankind with a will that He Himself cannot overrule. He created creatures which were more powerful than He is. However this affirmation does not make it so. Repeating it does not make it so. Scripture teaches that God is omnipotent. Salvation is the work of God, totally apart from the will of mankind, accomplished by what Christ did on the cross, apart from the will, or actions, of mankind (Rom. 9:16).

7. As "love worketh no ill," can God inflict, or cause, or allow to be inflicted, an endless ill? (Rom. 13:10)
All mankind throughout scripture, from Cain to those in the tribulation, choose to turn away from God. Some will seek to hide from the presence of God during the tribulation! Is that God's will? Absolutely not.
Another non-answer. Don refuses to acknowledge that eternal torment is an ill, or evil, something that God would not inflict on anyone. Rather he affirms the supremacy of the creature's will over the Divine. "Mankind chooses to sin. Mankind deserves whatever it gets. God cannot affect His creatures. He can do nothing to violate their wills." Scripture, however, reveals that men are not free to choose God. Men are born sinners. Their state is the result of Adam's sin. They can not make any other choice. In order to be saved, people must be individually drawn to God. All will be drawn to God, in due time (Titus 2:11, 1 Tim. 2:6).

8. As we are forbidden to be overcome by evil, can we safely suppose that God will be overcome by evil? (Rom. 12:21)
1Cor 1:25 "Because the foolishness of God is wiser than men; and the weakness of God is stronger than men." 2 Cor 12:9 "...for my strength is made perfect in weakness." All of God's attributes are infinite in nature. God cannot sin because He is infinitely righteous.
A non-responsive answer. In the end, will more people be living in heaven, or in hell? If eternal torment is true, as Don believes, and the eternal destiny of mankind is determined at death, then the vast majority of the human race are destined to suffer forever. Hell will surely be more populated than heaven. The plan and purpose of God will have failed. The creatures God allegedly loves will be lost forever. The cross (intended to reconcile all God's enemies--Col. 1:20) will have been a failure. The will of God (that none perish--2 Pet. 3:9) will have failed. God will have been overcome. Evil, the Devil, will have prevailed.

9. Would not the infliction of endless punishment prove that God HAD been overcome by evil?
Endless punishment is the power of God! Since all of God's attributes are endless, infinite and never ceasing, God can never be in the presence of sin. Sin separates man from God (Isaiah 59:2, Proverbs 15:29).
See the previous answer. Scripture says the evangel is the power of God for salvation. God's intention is to save all mankind. 1 John 2:2, already quoted by our opponent, teaches that all sin has already been expiated, atoned for, by the death of Christ. God is not powerless, as He is misrepresented to be. God will save all He intends to save (1 Timothy 4:10). Neither sin, nor man's will, can prevail against God. Regarding God and the presence of sin, see #153, #156 below.

10. If man does wrong in returning evil for evil, would not God do wrong if He was to do the same?
No, because God gives all of His creation free will. Do you not believe 2 Peter 2:10 "...self-willed..."? No, because only God is omniscient, omnipotent and omnipresent. God sees everything done in public and private. Only God can judge righteously because God is only light. Man does wrong by returning evil for evil, because how can one that is evil, judge evil??? Romans 3:8 And not [rather], (as we be slanderously reported, and as some affirm that we say,) Let us do evil, that good may come? whose damnation is just.
Of course all creatures have and exercise their wills. But we are only free to act according to our natures. Men are sinners. They act accordingly. They cannot choose God, until He draws them to Himself (John 6:44). When God saves a sinner, He grants them faith to believe the evangel (Acts 13:48). It is not a matter of "free will." Salvation, and faith to believe, are gifts of God, "not of works," and "not of the will of the flesh," lest we boast (Eph. 2:8-9; Jn. 1:13). This doesn't answer the question, however, as to whether God will do what He enjoins us to do, i.e. whether He is indeed merciful, as previous scriptures affirmed.

11. Would not endless punishment be the return of evil for evil?
The wicked cannot understand the judgment of God (Daniel 12:10). The wicked are asking for judgment from God and speak evil about God (Isaiah 32:6). God punishes the unrepentant hardened heart, for He has no other choice. Jesus said, that we shall reap what we sow. Deut. 4:25 "...and shall do evil in the sight of the LORD thy God, to provoke him to anger:..." Pro 8:13 "The fear of the LORD [is] to hate evil:..."
Another non-responsive answer. Again Don continues to affirm that God is powerless and man is in control; God can only respond to what man does; God has no choice! Indeed! He continues to misrepresent the God of the Scriptures.

12. As we are commanded "to overcome evil with good," may we not safely infer that God will do the same? (Rom. 12:21)
The "we" is referring to only Christians and not those of a reprobate mind that cannot distinguish good from evil. A humble and contrite heart before the LORD will obtain forgiveness from Him (1 John 1:9). God will not do the same to unbelievers for they will not accept the free gift of salvation.
Another misrepresentation of God as being incapable of overcoming His enemies, transforming them into His friends (see Nebuchadnezzar [Dan. 4:34], and Paul [Gal. 1:15-16], as examples). According to this misrepresentation, God can only do what man allows Him to do (whether that is to save him, or to damn him); God is powerless to save, and is capable of nothing but returning evil for evil.

13. Would the infliction of endless punishment be overcoming evil with good?
Man reaps what he sows. Acts 3:14 But ye denied the Holy One and the Just, and desired a murderer to be granted unto you; Hasn't this same question already been asked several times already? See the above 5 answers.
The correct answer is "no." Endless punishment would be evil, not good; it would not be proportionate, nor just. It surely would not be "reaping what is sown." Scripture says that any punishment inflicted should be proportionate. Eternal punishment is overkill!

14. If God hates the sinner, does the sinner do wrong in hating Him?
Absolutely yes! How can anyone hate a righteous loving just God??? God is only executing righteous judgment upon those that reap what they sow. God is not mocked. Isaiah 32:6 For the vile person will speak villainy, and his heart will work iniquity, to practice hypocrisy, and to utter error against the LORD, to make empty the soul of the hungry, and he will cause the drink of the thirsty to fail.
Yes, the sinner would be wrong to hate God. But, of course, God does not hate the sinner. He loves the world. He gave His Son to save the world (John 3:16). When we were yet sinners, Christ died for us. But sinners' perceptions of God are clouded by theology and it's eternal torment. They perceive that God hates them, because, they believe, He has determined to unfairly torment them forever. They do not perceive the God that Don represents as "righteous loving [and] just." And rightly so. His caricature of God defames God.

15. Is God a changeable being? (James 1:17)
No. Duh.
Not as dumb a question as it sounds, dear friend. Read on.

16. If God loves His enemies now, will he not always love them?
His love never fails, but the sin of unbelief separates one from God for all eternity. God gives us all free will (2Peter 2:10) to choose evil or good. By choosing to not accept God, one is asking for damnation. God must execute judgment, even on those whom He loves. Being saved from the eternal wrath of God and being loved by God are two different things. Isaiah 55:6 Seek ye the LORD while he may be found, call ye upon him while he is near:
According to this defender of orthodoxy, God's love never fails, it just fails to accomplish it's desire. Sounds like doubletalk to me. He tells us that God loves those He has determined to torment and punish for all eternity. Thus, accordingly, God is bound to act in response to how man acts. God, thus, cannot affect man or his will. God, accordingly, is powerless to achieve His desire to save all mankind. Man alone is free to act. God, according to this view, is powerless against the free will of man. But, this view is wrong. This is not the God of the Scriptures. 2 Peter 2:10 simply says that men have a will, it says nothing about the latitude of that freedom, or the ability of God to affect the will and actions of mankind, and thereby accomplish what He has decreed will occur.

17. Is it just for God to be "kind to the evil and unthankful," in their present life? (Luke 6:35)
Again the same brain dead accusations against God. See the above answers. God is not willing that ANY should perish... (2Peter 3:9)... but not all will accept this free gift of salvation. Neh 9:33 Howbeit thou [art] just in all that is brought upon us; for thou hast done right, but we have done wickedly:
Since when is affirming what the Scriptures affirm a "brain dead accusation against God"? If God is really not willing that any perish, then why will they perish? Don't give me this free will nonsense. "No man can come to Me," Jesus said, "except the Father draw him" (John 6:44). Salvation is indeed a gift from God, sovereignly given, to whomever God chooses, when He chooses, and He will indeed grant it to all mankind, in due time (Titus 2:11, 1 Tim 2:6). It does not depend on man's acceptance. Left to themselves, no man would ever choose God (Rom. 3:10-11). At the present time, God bestows benefits of life, food, health, rain, etc, to saints and sinners alike (Acts 17:25). He also has ordained for all mankind to experience a portion of both good and evil as well. The experiences of life are all preparatory to, and in anticipation of, our eternal life with God.

18. Would it be unjust for God to be kind to all men in a future state?
Absolutely yes. Not all men will accept this free gift of salvation. Does God force Himself to everyone? Did God force Lucifer and his angels to fall from heaven? Did God force Adam and Eve to eat of the fruit? The wages of sin is death. Literally. God said it and He was not joking!
We are told that it would be unjust for God to be merciful and kind. Salvation, we are assured, is only offered to mankind; those who accept it, who fulfill the condition of accepting God's offer, are saved. Thus, salvation is received by doing something; salvation is received by the work of believing. Don continually misrepresents the God of the Scriptures, the One "Who is operating all things according to the counsel of His own will" (Eph. 1:11). Further, the Scriptures affirm that the Adversary sinned "from the beginning" (1 John 3:8). Adam's sin was known by God, indeed planned by God, from before the eons. Adam's sin, which plunged the race into death, and Christ's obedience, which redeems the race from sin, are equally planned by God and equally necessary in God's overall plan (Rom. 5:15-17). God's intention has always been to save all of mankind from death (Col. 1:16-20). But that purpose was not revealed until after Christ had come to die for the race. Of course, the death which is the penalty of sin is literal death, not eternal existence in hell. Eternal torment is unscriptural.

19. If all men justly deserve endless punishment, will not those who are saved, be saved unjustly?
"All" men I am assuming you are grouping unbelievers with the believers in Christ. Neh 9:33 Howbeit thou [art] just in all that is brought upon us; for thou hast done right, but we have done wickedly: Matthew 5:45 That ye may be the children of your Father which is in heaven: for he maketh his sun to rise on the evil and on the good, and sendeth rain on the just and on the unjust.
This question, like others before it, goes unanswered. Is it just to save some of mankind and pass over others? All alike are sinners. Why does God save some and not all, if that is the case? Our opponent repeats his oft-repeated affirmation that the wicked deserve what they get, the reverse being that the just deserve to be saved, because they have been willing to believe and be saved. Why they are smarter, or more wise, or more willing, is not answered. The Scriptures teach that those saved are elected by God, given faith to believe the evangel (Acts 13:48), and saved by God's gracious activity, not by anything in them (Eph. 2:8-10).

20. If God "will by no means clear the guilty," by what means can just punishment be evaded? (Ex. 34:7)
An unbeliever cannot escape the judgment of God. Scripture clearly shows that all are given equal opportunity for accepting this free gift of eternal life and are without excuse (Romans 1:20). Matthew 5:45 That ye may be the children of your Father which is in heaven: for he maketh his sun to rise on the evil and on the good, and sendeth rain on the just and on the unjust.
" . . . all are given equal opportunity . . . "? Nonsense. This is patently untrue. The Scriptures clearly show that all mankind was plunged into it's present state of being lost by the actions of one man, Adam (Rom. 5:12). All mankind are born sinners. In the history of the world, very few of mankind have ever been given the opportunity to believe in the "only name given under heaven, whereby we must be saved" (Acts 4:12). Salvation is a gift, sovereignly given to those of God's choice. It is offered to no one. It was procured by the obedience of One Man, Christ Jesus, and His death on the cross (Rom. 5:15-18). It is for all mankind, it is presently enjoyed by all who believe, and will be bestowed on all mankind in due time (Romans 3:22, Titus 2:11, 1 Tim 2:6).

21. As no man can measure endless punishment to his neighbor, will endless punishment be measured to him? (Luke 6:38)
A very misleading vague open ended question. Who is this "no man"? A believer or unbeliever? No man whatsoever can judge righteously, because all mankind is still in a corruptible body and is still in the flesh. As a Christian, we are filled with the Holy Spirit, but still sin. A sinner cannot judge another sinner. Satan cannot cast out Satan.
If he had read the scripture quoted, Don wouldn't have made such a non-responsive answer. The question is right on point. Quoting verse 37 and 38: "Judge not, and you will not be judged; condemn not and you will not be condemned; forgive, and you will be forgiven; give and it will be given to you: good measure, pressed down, shaken together, running over, will be put in your lap. For the measure you give will be the measure you get back." The context is God's mercy (v. 37). There's no way men can inflict (i.e., "measure" out) endless torment on their neighbor. How can God inflict it on them? The last phrase of verse 38 could be paraphrased thus: "The measure of judgment you inflict on others will be the measure you get back from God." God's punishment, if inflicted at all, will not be unmeasured, but proportionate, corrective, culminating in salvation.

22. Would it be merciful in God to inflict endless punishment? -- that is, merciful to the sufferer?
Answered already many times above. Yes, it is truly merciful for God to inflict endless punishment on those that love their sin! God cannot be in the presence of sin.
Endless torment and torture is mercy? This is the twisted, prideful logic and calloused heart of those who deify free will, making God impotent to fulfill His will and carry out the desire of His heart.

23. Can that be just which is not merciful?
Yes. God must punish all presence of sin because there is no darkness in God whatsoever. If anyone rejects the only perfect sacrifice paid on the cross by Jesus Christ, there remains no other sacrifice for sin (Hebrews 10:26). Time does not wash away sin, nor does punishment, nor does paying with money. Only the blood of Jesus Christ and there is no other name given (Acts 4:12).

Yes, the blood of Jesus Christ has atoned for, expiated, all the sins of all mankind (1 John 2:2), and there's coming a day when every knee will bow and every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father (Phil. 2:10-11). Christ will turn over to God the Father the reconciled universe He died for (1 Cor. 15:28). Sin will forever be destroyed, never to exist again. God will not allow sin to mar the universe eternally, in this ever-burning hell of Christian mythology.

24. Do not cruelty and injustice go hand in hand?
Absolutely not. Hebrews 10:26. God will not be mocked for you will reap what you sow (Galatians 6:7). God must judge all manner of sin.
If a man tortures an animal, he is regarded as cruel. Such actions reveals a cruel heart. If a man tortures his fellow man he is regarded as a cruel monster. He is rightly reviled. A mass murderer is a fiend. His name is a title of infamy. Those who kill the defenseless, the innocent are repugnant to humanity. Such is the heart that God has implanted in mankind. How can God do what would be universally condemned by the very love and compassion that He placed in the hearts of us all. Of course actions have consequences. Of course God judges sin. But God is love. His love brought humanity into existence. His love purposed the cross even before the creation. His intention is to have a Family of loving children. He is not the powerless Fraud Don Hewey mistakenly depicts as being ever subject to the free will of the creature. Sin has been judged in the death of God's Son on the cross. Sin will be destroyed. It will not ever mar the universe. It will not claim as its own more than the Cross.

25. Can that be merciful which is not just?
No. All mercy is just. God sends His rain upon both the just and the unjust (Matthew 5:45) and is not a respecter of persons (Deut 10:17, 16:19, Romans 2:11) and having respect for persons is sin (James 2:9). Mankind has no excuse for refusing the free gift of salvation, for this has appeared to all creation (Romans 1:20).
God's mercy is based on the fact that all sin has been judged in the person of His Son. God has subjected the whole creation to the experience of evil, in order to extend mercy to all (Rom 8:20). Romans 1:20 says that man is without excuse for denying God's existence. But the free gift of salvation has not yet been revealed to all mankind; only to a few now, in due time to all (Titus 2:11, 1 Tim 2:6).

26. Does divine justice demand the infliction of pain from which mercy recoils?
Yes. For the wages of sin is death (Romans 6:23). Galatians 6:7 Be not deceived; God is not mocked: for whatsoever a man soweth, that shall he also reap.
This answer would seem to contradict his answer above . . . "all of God's attributes are endless, infinite and never ceasing" (answer #9). Does God's justice overrule His mercy? Does His mercy recoil at His own justice? This misrepresentation of God ought, indeed, to be mocked as a weak fraud, powerless to save.

27. Does divine mercy require any thing that justice refuses to grant?
No.
Which is it? Answer #27 contradicts Answer #26!

28. If the demands of divine justice are opposed to the requirements of mercy, is not God divided against Himself?
Ridiculous question! God did not sin, man did. When man sinned, death entered in by sin (Romans 5:12). Mankind has a problem with death, God does not for only God is immortal and incorruptible (1Tim 6:16, 1:17). Man is mortal and corruptible (1Cor 15:42-54). God must punish all presence of sin because there is no darkness in God whatsoever. If anyone rejects the only perfect sacrifice paid on the cross by Jesus Christ, there remains no other sacrifice for sin (Hebrews 10:26). Time does not wash away sin, nor does punishment, nor does paying with money. Only the blood of Jesus Christ and there is no other name given (Acts 4:12).
He has already asserted that "all of God's attributes are endless, infinite and never ceasing, (answer #9), so why is it ridiculous to ask if it is possible for justice and mercy to be at odds with each other. He has contradicted himself in answering the two previous questions. Here he over-emphasizes God's holiness and justice at the expense of His love and mercy. This is necessary because he has elevated free will to a status above God Himself. This false view of God is that He is powerless to love or be merciful. He can only be just and holy. He cannot live with sin, neither can He destroy it. God can love the sinner, but is powerless to save the sinner. The sinner must save himself. And all God can do for the sinner is torture him forever. This false and misleading caricature of God is not the God of the Scriptures. See also #23 above.

29. If the requirements of mercy are opposed to the demands of the justice of God, can His kingdom stand? -- (Mark 3:24)
Answered above already. God's kingdom will stand forever. Why? Because God cannot sin. It is impossible. God must therefore separate Himself from the presence of sin by those that have willfully rejected the only perfect sacrifice.
Does he really believe what he says here? Doesn't he see the contradiction? Why would God devise a plan of salvation which would succeed in saving only a few souls, involve the eternal loss of the majority of His creation, and result in the eternal existence and perpetuation of evil and death in the fires of hell? Is this success? Or is this failure? Is this what He planned? Or did God miss the mark (sin)? God cannot sin, he says. But His kingdom will ever stand a failure, if it was indeed God's intention to save the world, and He failed to accomplish that goal. Don continues to paint for us a picture of God as powerless: powerless to save; powerless to overcome sin; powerless to remove it from His universe; powerless to destroy the works of the devil; powerless to make His enemies His friends. This is not the God of the Scriptures.

30. If the justice and mercy of God are any way opposed, do they "keep the unity of the spirit in the bonds of peace?'
Yes. God will always show His mercy until the day of judgment when sin must be judged for what it is: DEATH. God is not the God of the dead, but of the living (Mat 22:32, Mark 12:27).
Earlier Don said that "all of God's attributes are endless, infinite and never ceasing, (answer #9). Now he insist that God's mercy will end, and His judgment will take over. And apparently God will cease to be God to those in hell! Jesus used that phrase, "God is the God of the living not the dead," to insist that God would one day raise the dead, i.e. the dead are not beyond the reach of God (Matt. 22:32). Don believes, however, that the dead are indeed beyond the reach, the love and the mercy of God.

31. If justice and mercy are opposed to their requirements can Deity be a just God and a Savior? -- (Isaiah 45:21).
Redundant question rephrased over and over again. Read the above answers.
Here's the objection to redundant questions, after he has used repeated redundant answers, all affirming the supremacy of free-will, and the inability of God to save. The Scriptures affirm that God is just, righteous, and He is also the Savior of all mankind (Isaiah 45:21, 1 Tim. 4:10).

32. If "a God all mercy is a God unjust," would not a God all justice be a God unmerciful?
No. God will always show His mercy until the day of judgment when sin must be judged for what it is: DEATH. God is not the God of the dead, but of the living (Mat22:32, Mark 12:27).
Repeat of the answer from #31 above. He responds to a logical question with a marked lack of logic, a contradiction. Don insists that God's mercy will cease.

33. Is there any such thing in God as unjust mercy, or unmerciful justice?
Absolutely not. There is no verse in the bible that teaches that, so you are quite mistaken, among other things.
He has already said that God's mercy will cease, or be checked. Doesn't that mean that His justice will be, therefore, without mercy? There are, however, examples of judgment without mercy (James 2:13, Heb 10:28,29 -- so apparently he doesn't own a concordance), but intermediate judgments do not affect the ultimate salvation of mankind, which God declares is His intention.

34. Is there any such thing in God as just cruelty, or merciful injustice?
Yes. If you define "cruelty" as punishment for sin, then the answer is yes. God does not force Himself on people.
See my answer #24. Don affirms that God, infinite in goodness, created mankind, invested them with a will even He cannot violate, all the while knowing the result would be the damnation of the majority to endless torture, because He also invested them with inherent immortality. Now, the infliction of fair punishment on those who are in fact responsible and able to do otherwise would be just. The infliction of eternal torment as a final fate on those who did not ask to be born, had no choice in plunging the race into sin and death, were never given a chance to be saved, and couldn't have chosen God if they wanted to, is not just, is not fair. It is cruel, that is, it would be if it were true. Thank God it is not true. Sadly, Don affirms that it is just for God to be cruel, all in defense of the unscriptural notion that God cannot save those He would like to save. Thus he continues to misrepresent that God is not only powerless to save, but infinitely cruel.

35. If you had sufficient power would you not deliver all men from sin?
No. And God already has shown His divine perfect absolute mercy on mankind by sending His Son. Romans 5:8 But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us .
In other words, God has done all He possibly can do; He can do no more; He doesn't have sufficient power to win the objects of His love. Absolute nonsense! The God of the Scriptures declares that nothing can stay His hand, or resist His will (Dan 4:35).

36. Are you more merciful than the God Who made you?
Absolutely no. God's creation can never be greater than The Creator, therefore, God's mercy is the greatest. Job 4:17 "Shall mortal man be more just than God? shall a man be more pure than his maker?"
He has already admitted that mercy recoils at the justice of God (answer #26). See my answer #24. The heart of mankind recoils at the thought of eternal torment.

37. 'Can a woman forget her sucking child?'
Yes, when the child willfully walk's away from the mother. God cannot be a part of sin and those who willfully turn down the free gift of salvation will be eternally separated from God (John 8:24, Romans 6:23). Isaiah 45:9 Woe unto him that striveth with his Maker! [Let] the potsherd [strive] with the potsherds of the earth. Shall the clay say to him that fashioneth it, What makest thou? or thy work, He hath no hands?
Paul also quotes that verse about the Potter and the clay. Indeed Paul shows that the "vessels of destruction" were made that way by God to reveal His power. They had no free will to resist, no opportunity to be anything but what God intended them to be, unsaved sinners. But that cannot be their final state. The final state of the universe is a reconciled universal all acknowledging that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father, and God is All in all (1 Cor. 15:28, Col. 1:20). Don Hewey may indeed forget his child, thus He represents that God will indeed forget His creatures languishing in hell, beyond His reach. But the God of the Scriptures declares "I will not forget you." (Isa. 49:15 - the verse quoted above, which this opponent apparently did not look up and read.) God will have a desire to the work of His hands (Job 14:15). God will accomplish the salvation of the race, and the reconciliation of the universe, which is His stated intention (Col. 1:16-20).

38. Is the Creator of human sympathy less benevolent than the creature?
Absolutely no. God's creation can never be greater than The Creator, therefore, God's mercy is the greatest. Job 4:17 Shall mortal man be more just than God? shall a man be more pure than his maker?
See #36 and #24 above.

39. If God WOULD save all men, but CANNOT, is He infinite in power?
God is unchanging and is always infinite in power, righteousness, mercy, strength, wisdom, etc. It is not written in God's word that all men will be saved, but it is written that all SHOULD not perish. Scripture does not say that all WILL come to repentance (2 Peter 3:9).
2 Peter 3:9 says that God desires that all come to repentance. 1 Timothy 2:4 says that God desires that all men be saved. Now the question was, "If God would save all men, but cannot, is He infinite in power?" Don insists on the one hand that God cannot save all those He wants to save, because He can't violate their "free will," and on the other hand he continues to insist that God is "always infinite in power . . . " Something is wrong. He can't have it both ways.

40. If God CAN save all men, but WILL NOT, is He infinite in goodness?
Yes, all of God's attributes are infinite. It is the sin of mankind that is not good. God cannot be a part of any sin whatsoever. God does not force salvation unto all creation. God did not force Lucifer to fall from heaven, it was Lucifer HIMSELF (Ezekiel 28:17) that corrupted himself. Not God. Likewise with Adam and Eve. Both were created in perfection, completely immortal until they chose to sin which brought forth death.
A very good question. But Don doesn't believe that God can save all mankind; he believes that God can do nothing that the will of man does not allow. If Adam and Eve were perfect and immortal, as he affirms, how could they have fallen into sin. Perfect beings cannot sin. "Lucifer" is a red herring. He doesn't exist; "Lucifer" is a mistranslation found in Isa. 14. The King of Tyre mentioned in Ezekiel 28:17 is only a man, not a perfect angel who sinned. The Adversary (Satan), Scripture says, sinned from the beginning (1 John 3:8), and was a murderer from the beginning (John 8:44). He was created by God to be what he is, an adversary. Adam's sin, like Christ's obedience and death, was known, ordained, by God from before the creation. They are not the random acts of man's free will, to which God can only react.

41. Does God DESIRE the salvation of all men? (1 Tim. 2:3-4)
Yes, of course, but there is a big difference between "all" will come to repentance versus "all" should come to repentance. God did not desire for sin to enter into the Garden of Eden, nor it is God's desire that Christian's still sin either. God is never desirous of sin.
The difference, for Don, is that God cannot achieve His desire. He has made man's will inviolate, superior even to Himself. Why would God devise such a plan, in which things occur which are outside God's will, and beyond His control? Does this in any way bring God glory? 1 Tim. 4:10 says that the Living God is the Saviour of all mankind, not God wants to be, not God wishes He were, but God is the Saviour of all mankind.

42. As God is righteous, must not the desire for universal salvation be a RIGHTEOUS desire?
Of course it is a righteous desire. Does this prove that everyone is saved? No, of course not. God did not desire for sin to enter into the Garden of Eden, nor it is God's desire that Christian's still sin either. God is never desirous of sin.
Has he never read Judges 14:4? Sampson's sin (seeking a wife from the Philistines) "was of the LORD." God is God, the Almighty. Nothing happens which is outside the providential oversight of God. The entrance of sin into the world, as well as it's destruction through the cross of Christ, are all part of God's plan. Sin will not exist forever. Sin is not more powerful than God. But sin is more powerful than Don's caricature of God.

43. Is it true, that "the desire of the righteous shall be granted?" -- (Prov. 10:24)
Yes. "All" are not righteous however and that is the confusion of universalists. Was the desire of Pharaoh granted? King Herod? Satan desires to be higher than God (Isaiah 14:12-16), is this going to be granted as well?????? No. Because they are not righteous. Duh.
Duh, indeed. What about God's desire? God is righteous, infinitely so. But Don has already mistakenly stated that God cannot achieve the desire of His heart, because man's free will is supreme.

44. Did God design universal salvation when He created man?
Salvation from what? Sin did not exist in the Garden of Eden! Everything God created up until the entrance of sin upon mankind was pronounced "good" by God. Genesis 1:31 And God saw ***every thing*** that he had made, and, behold, [it was] ***very good***.
So, God's plan of salvation is an afterthought, simply God's response to the independent free act of man? No. The Scriptures, declare that Christ was, in the mind and planning of God, "slain from the foundation of the world" (Rev. 13:8). The Scriptures declare that there were people written in the book of life "from the foundation of the world" (Rev. 17:8). God's plan, design and intention to be the Saviour of all mankind, to reconcile the universe to God existed from the creation of the universe (Col. 1:15-20).

45. Will God carry His original design into execution?
Yes. His righteous design will be executed. Unrighteous will be destroyed eternally and separated from His presence.
God's righteous design was to be head over all things (Col. 1:15-20). The universe was created for God. He will carry out His original design. That includes the salvation of all who will have become lost in the meantime, the vivification of all who will have died in the meantime, and the reconciliation of all who will have become estranged from God in the meantime. Don's denial of this original design implies, his protestations notwithstanding, that unrighteousness and sin will not, in fact, be destroyed, but will continue to exist, forever segregated in a place called hell, a blight on the universe forever.

46. Can finite man frustrate the purposes of the Almighty?
Yes. Just ask Lucifer and his angels if you ever get a chance to. It is the freewill of mankind that God has blessed all of His creation with. Freewill to choose. We have the freedom to choose good or evil each and every day of our lives. Temptation exists everyday. Temptation is not a sin, but giving into temptation is a sin.
It is blasphemous to suggest that finite mankind can frustrate the will of God (Dan. 4:35). It is the height of human pride to believe that mankind is more powerful than God. Nowhere does Word of God say that mankind has such a freedom of will. If man's will were as free as Don suggests there could be no such thing as prophecy. God knows the end from the beginning (Isa. 46:10). The Devil has never done anything outside the knowledge and Providence of God. "God is operating all things according to the counsel of His own will" (Eph. 1:11, Isa. 46:10b). God's will is supreme, not man's. This free will theology is a blasphemous denial of the deity of God.

47. Is every individual under obligation to be thankful for his existence?
Yes, because all of God's creation were created for His pleasure and all should give thanksgiving to The Creator. However, all will not. Some will even choose to continue blaspheming His Blessed Name forever. (Revelation 16:11).
How can you believe that "all of God's creation were created for His pleasure," and still believe that mankind was created with a will which could resist God's pleasure and desire to save? See the previous absurd answer - that God has blessed mankind with the very means that will damn the vast majority for all eternity. "Created for His pleasure"? Give me a break! Scripture surely does say that the creation was created for God (Col. 1:15-20), and that there is coming a day when "every knee shall bow (voluntarily) and every tongue shall confess (voluntarily) that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father" (Rom. 14:11). Of course some choose, in the meantime, to rebel. They are the ones chosen by God to do so, "vessels made by the Potter Himself (God) for destruction" (Rom. 8:20-24). But that is not their eternal destiny. Rev. 16:11 doesn't say anything about continuing to blaspheme forever.

48. Will this obligation eternally continue?
No. Because all presence of sin will be eternally separated from the presence of God.
All who are in hell, we are told, are cut off from God's love and any obligation to God. But, according to this view God is as much cut off from the objects of His love, or at least those He used to love, as is mankind cut off from God. Is this the love of the Savior who seeks until He finds the lost sheep? No, this is a powerless caricature of God; His love is ever unfulfilled; He cannot be God to the vast majority of His creation; He has given them up to another; He has surrendered them to the real victor in the universe, the mythical Lucifer. And, to think, they can't even thank God for blessing them with the free will which put them in hell forever! Not only does this absurd theology contradict Scripture, it defies logic, and insults and defames the True God of the Scriptures, the God Who is powerful to save, Who is the Saviour of all mankind, Who will be All in all.

49. Can any one be thankful for that which, on the whole, is not a blessing?
Yes. Jesus promised all of his disciples that they would be persecuted for His namesake. No where in scripture does it say that a Christian's walk was going to be easy, but that after our trials and periods of chastening, we would enjoy blessings. Too many verses to quote here. Apparently Don didn't understand the intent of the question, for he dodged it. It's spelled out more clearly in the next question, where he contradicts his answer here. Hell will not be a blessing to those in it. Neither is free will the blessing he claims it is, in his answer #46 above, i.e., if it were true. The real question, then, is: will mankind thank God for hell, will they thank God for the free will that placed them in hell forever? And if God really loved mankind, why would He give them such a blessing, that would be guaranteed to damn their souls forever? If you loved your child, would you give them a loaded gun with a hair trigger. In ignorance, I'm sure, Don does give the real answer, however. According to God's Plan all humanity will go through trial, chastening and judgment. And afterward they will experience benefits of the salvation which Christ already paid for on the cross (1 John 2:2). They will indeed thank God for all they may have experienced in the meantime as they bow the knee to Jesus as Lord.

50. If any one be rendered endlessly miserable, will he be still under obligation to thank God for existence?
No. For what reason? For he will be eternally separated from the presence of God so what good would that do? It is an exercise in vanity. See my two answers just above (#48 and #49).

51. Would endless misery benefit the Almighty, as the INFLICTOR?
Absolutely yes. Because punishing the presence of sin is God's righteousness. His hate for sin is greater than His love for us, otherwise He would have never sent His Son to pay such a huge price to die on the cross. If Jesus Christ were to have never paid for all of the sins, no matter how great the love of God is, there would still be the presence of unpaid for sin and that would cause us to be eternally separated from God. Love does not forgive sins, the blood of Jesus Christ does.
According to this answer, God will derive benefit by tormenting billions of people forever! Fiendish! This is not the God the Scriptures reveal. God's righteousness is displayed in saving (Rom. 1:17, 3:21-26). And the God of the Scriptures is able to do just that. In fact, He has already done it. The death Jesus died atoned for, expiated, the sins of the whole world (1 John 2:2). Sin is paid for! There is no such thing as "unpaid for sin." For God to inflict punishment on people for their sins would be double payment.

52. Would endless misery benefit the saints, as SPECTATORS?
Yes. Psalm 59:8 But thou, O LORD, shalt laugh at them; thou shalt have all the heathen in derision. Psalm 37:13 The Lord shall laugh at him: for he seeth that his day is coming. Psalm 59:5 Thou therefore, O LORD God of hosts, the God of Israel, awake to visit all the heathen: be not merciful to any wicked transgressors. Selah.
Picture it! Picture orthodoxy's, and Don's, version of heaven! God and the saints in heaven beholding the torment of unbelievers in hell, forever. Children beholding their parents being tormented, forever. Parents beholding their children being tormented, forever. God beholding all His children being tormented, forever. One and all deriving benefit from the screams, the pain. And not a tear in sight (in heaven, that is). Only delight, laughter, joy. God, powerless to save, is reduced to inflicting pain on those weaker than Himself, but those whose will He could not overcome, those whose love He could not win. Thankfully, the true God is not like this. God is love, far more so even than some of His professed followers! Laughter, especially in the contexts of the verses Don quotes, is not always a sign of delight, but for effect. But, like other questions, this one tells more of the heart of the answerer.

53. Would endless misery benefit the sinner, as the SUFFERER?
No. Is God obligated to benefit the sinner? Didn't God already give this free gift? Did the sinner turn this free gift away?
This caricature is repeated again: God ceases to be God to those in hell; He feels no obligation to them; He derives benefit from their pain; "God gave His Son, He will do no more."

54. If endless punishment be the "wages of sin," could the sinner ever receive payment in full? (Rom. 6:23)
There is no "if," it is fact that the wages of sin is death. There are no if's and's or but's about it. It is promised in God's word. The sinner must receive this free gift before he is judged, because it is appointed unto man to only die once, then face judgment. One judgment.
No such thing as eternal punishment is "promised in God's Word." Romans 6:23 simply says "death. Originally, in Genesis, God simply said "you shall surely die." In all the Old Testament no such thing as eternal torment is even hinted at. Men simply died, were "gathered to their fathers," i.e. all the dead went to sheol, where they were unconscious awaiting resurrection. Nowhere in Scripture are men ever called immortal. Our souls are not immortal. Our bodies are not immortal. Our spirits are not immortal. Both "eternal punishment" and "eternal life" were first inaugurated by the preaching of Christ, in His announcement of the nearness of the Kingdom of God. The word "eternal" is the Greek adjective aionios, and means eonian (i.e. of or pertaining to an age - from the noun aion, age or eon). It had reference to the coming Kingdom of God. It has nothing to do with "eternity." "Eonian (Eternal) life" would grant entrance into the impending Kingdom, and was only granted to those who were faithful and obedient until the Kingdom's coming; "Eonian (Eternal) death" would exclude a person from entrance into the impending Kingdom, and was inflicted on those who were unfaithful or disobedient.

55. As man is a finite being, can he commit an infinite sin?
Yes. Man is committing infinite sin because man cannot by himself make a satisfactory atonement for his sin. Because man is sinning against an infinite God and God give's mankind two choices: to repent and accept the only free gift of salvation or to accept the wages of sin which is death. This is not a trick question.
Man is finite, mortal. He is not immortal. Christ only has immortality (1 Tim. 6:16). There is absolutely no verse in Scripture which confirms what Don is teaching. The satisfactory atonement (expiation, propitiation) has been made on behalf of all the sins of all mankind (1 John 2:2). All sins have been paid for. Jesus paid it all! God gives no man the choice of whether to be saved or not. He saves those He chooses now. The rest He saves in His due time. Don, like many other Christians, makes salvation conditional. But, if it is conditional, it is of works. If it is of works, then it's something you can boast about, it's something you can delight in for having made the right choice. This scenario makes man's choice determinative in salvation, that is, each man's free choice is the cause of his own salvation; this also makes man's choice determinative in damnation, that is, each man's free choice is the cause of his own damnation. Thus, by sparing God from the responsible for sending people to hell, this free will theology has also spared God from being their Saviour. Men are saved by their own choice of God. Thus this teaching has brought Don under the anathema of Galatians 1:8-9.

56. If man cannot commit an infinite sin, can he deserve endless punishment?
Your question is false and therefore cannot be answered scripturally. Man does commit infinite sin because his sin cannot be paid for by himself!
See my answer #55 above.

57. If one sin be infinite, can a million be any more?
No. It only took one sin for Adam and Eve to receive death and to lose their immortal bodies. They were also banished from the Garden of Eden. The ground was cursed as well. One sin was all it took.
See my answer #62 below. In addition, Don is simply wrong, not knowing the Scriptures. The Bible nowhere says that Adam and Ever were ever immortal. No part of humanity is now immortal. Humanity is mortal. Immortality comes at the time of resurrection, not before (1 Cor. 15:23). At the present time Christ alone has immortality (1 Tim. 6:16). As for the rest of us, at death the body returns to the ground from which it came (Gen. 3:19); the soul returns to the unseen (sheol/hades) from which it came, that is, oblivion/non-existence (Psa. 9:17; Acts 2:27,31); the spirit returns to God Who gave it (Eccl. 12:7 -- the spirit that animates each individual person is not a discrete entity, or separate conscious person).

58. If ONE sin be NOT infinite, can a million of sins amount to an infinite sin?
Your question is false and therefore cannot be answered scripturally. Man does commit infinite consequences of sin because his sin cannot be paid for by himself! Hence, this is eternal separation from God.
See my answer #62 below. "Separation from God" is the popular theological term for death, but it is not a scriptural term. Death is the lack of life. The only cure for death is resurrection; there is no such thing as death from which there is no resurrection. The Scriptures declare that the last enemy to be destroyed is death (1 Cor. 15:26). Death can only be destroyed by emptying death of all it's inhabitants (Rev. 20:13). God will not be eternally separated from the objects of His love, neither in hell, nor in death." All shall be made alive in Christ" (1 Cor. 15:22).

59. If sin be infinite, can one sin be greater than the other?
The wages of sin is infinite, but there are differences in degrees of God's judgment. There are in scripture sins that are punished more severely than others such as sexual sins because it is the only sin committed against one's body. Devouring a widow's home will result in a greater damnation (Matt 23:14, Luke 20:47 et. al.). There are varying level's of damnation but the end result is still the same: one is still eternally separated from God, whether or not the damnation is more severe than another man.
See my answer #62 below.

60. If sin be infinite, can it be true that, "where sin abounded grace did MUCH MORE abound?" --(Rom. 5:20)
That verse only applies to believer's in Jesus Christ. Christian's still sin because we are still trapped inside of a fleshly body. Until a believer receives this resurrected immortal body (1Cor 15:42-54) then one will still struggle with his sinful nature. Therefore, God's grace upon one of His believer's is given much grace.
See my answer #62 below. Don is mistaken here about Romans 5. The "sin (which) abounded" in Romans 5 is the sin which entered the world through Adam. The "grace (which) abound(s)" is the grace which will accrue to all mankind through the obedience of Jesus Christ. "As one man's trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one Man's act of righteousness leads to acquittal and life for all men" (Rom. 5:18)."As in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive, each in its own order" (1 Cor. 15:22-23 ).

61. If sin be infinite, can it ever be finished or brought to an end?
Of course, otherwise you are accusing God of dying on the cross in vain! (Galatians 2:21).
See my answer #62 below. On the contrary, it is Don's teachings imply that Christ died in vain. God's love cannot save, he says. Christ's death does not save, he says. Each man's free choice saves. By these words he effectually denies the grace of God.

62. If ONE sin deserves an eternity of punishment, how much punishment will TEN sins deserve?
There are in scripture sins that are punished more severely than others such as sexual sins because it is the only sin committed against one's body. Devouring a widow's home will result in a greater damnation (Matt 23:14, Luke 20:47 et. al.). There are varying level's of damnation but the end result is still the same: one is still eternally separated from God, whether or not the damnation is more severe than another man. The Scriptures do indeed declare that any punishment which is inflicted is proportionate, not unlimited, measured, not uncontrolled, corrective, not punitive. The Scriptures uses finite examples, like being beaten with so many stripes (Luke 12:47-48). How can being tortured in flames be quantitatively different. Will 500 degree flames hurt less than 1000 degree flames. Yes "the end result is still the same:" inordinate non-proportionate punishment. These questions (#57-62) are building upon each other, intending to show, progressively, the unreasonableness of eternal torment. More than unreasonable, eternal torment is simply not taught in the Scriptures. Don's logic is based on the mistaken notion of free will, which he has elevated above God Himself.

63. Do you ardently DESIRE the salvation of all men?
No. Because the salvation of all men would make God a liar.
God desires the salvation of all mankind (1 Tim. 2:4, 4:10). Don Hewey does not. I'd rather agree with God. I'd rather believe God, and desire what God desires.

64. Is it true that God "openeth his hand and satisfieth the desire of every living thing?" -- (Ps. 145:16)
That is a loaded question. Not all will accept God opening His hand. God cannot cause one to sin, therefore, these desires are only righteous desires according to His will. Not all mankind desire to be in the presence of God. Ask Lucifer, King Herod, Pharaoh, Judas Iscariot, King Agrippa, on and on and on....
Yes, it's a loaded question. It reveals the heart of those who answer it. The God of the Scriptures has implanted into the heart of mankind compassion and mercy to mimic His own. As far as free will is concerned, Don has chosen the very examples which disprove his theory: the Adversary; Herod; Pharaoh; Judas; Agrippa, etc. These have all done what God intended for them to do. God created the waster to destroy (Isa. 54:16), the Adversary sinned "from the beginning" (1 John 3:8). Pharaoh was a vessel made for destruction by God Himself (Rom. 9:16,17,22), empowered by God Himself to resist Moses (Ex. 9:12), Judas Iscariot was predicted by the Lord to be His betrayer, he could have done nothing else. But one day, even their knees shall bow, their tongues shall be among those who confess that Jesus is Lord (Rom. 14:11).

65. Do you fervently PRAY for the salvation of all men? (1 Tim. 2:1)
No. I pray for the salvation of those who have not passed on into eternity as of yet. I pray for every man, woman and child who does not have a saving faith in the only LORD and Saviour who can offer eternal life---JESUS CHRIST.
Correctly, prayer cannot affect those who have already died. We are directed to pray for living mankind, for all mankind. The dead are in God's hands. In the words of Job, "He will have a desire for the work of His hands" (Job 14:15), and the dead will live, some to immortality at the coming of the Lord, the rest to be judged, and later, at the consummation, reconciled to God (1 Cor. 15:22-23).

66. Do you pray in FAITH, nothing doubting? (James 1:6)
Yes I do, how about you? In addition, how can one pray to God if one does not believe in God? All do not pray to God sad to say.
This answer is again off the mark. The questioner obviously means "Do you pray in faith . . . for the salvation of all men . . . nothing doubting?" That question goes unanswered, but we know what Don's answer is.

67. Are you aware, "that whatsoever is not of faith is sin?" -- (Rom 14:23)
Yes, but are you aware of it? In addition, who or what is your faith in: An eternal God or an eonian god?
I rely on "the Living God, Who is the Savior of all mankind" (1 Tim 4:10), and He is both eternal and eonian. God is eternal by virtue of the definition of the term God, and according to the entire teaching of Scripture. God is also eonian by virtue of His relationship to the eons, as their Creator (Heb. 1:2: "made the eons"), which is what eonian means in the only place where that term is used to describe God in Scripture (Romans 16:26).

68. Would God require us to pray for all men, and to pray in faith, unless He intends all men should be saved?
All men in what context? How can one pray for men that have already died? Duh! Once one dies, judgment follows. If one is not found written in the book of life, then the lake of fire is their eternal destiny. Read it, believe it and repent.
Instead of answering the question, Don chooses to make fun of it. The questioner doesn't say anything about praying for the dead. Why should we pray, make petitions, on behalf of all mankind? In this same book, 1 Timothy, after telling us to pray for all mankind, Paul goes on to tell us that "the Living God is the Saviour of all mankind" (1 Tim 4:10). The Judgment does not occur immediately after each individuals death, it occurs after the Millennium. The lake of Fire doesn't exist at the present time, and it is not eternal. I have read the Scriptures. I do believe the Scriptures. And the Scriptures do not teach what Don, or orthodoxy, or popular theology, teaches about hell, the Lake of Fire, or the eternal destiny of mankind. Read it for yourselves. Believe God when He says He is "the Saviour or all mankind."

69. If you believe endless misery to be the truth of God, why should you desire and pray that it may prove false?
I believe that every single word of God is pure (Proverbs 4:4) and is without error (Psalms 12:6-7). I believe God's word contains eternal life and so should you, otherwise you are wasting both your time and mine. God is not mocked.
Amen. The Word of God is pure, true, trustworthy and without error. But I'm not talking about any version, especially not the King James Version, which contradicts itself and contradicts God by it's inconsistency of translation, and by it's insistence on giving deference to the established orthodoxy of the seventeenth century Church of England.

70. Can the pleasure of the Almighty be contrary to his determinate will?
No, because it isn't.
Good answer! I agree.

71. Would the infliction of endless misery afford pleasure to the Deity?
Psalm 59:8 But thou, O LORD, shalt laugh at them; thou shalt have all the heathen in derision. Psalm 37:13 The Lord shall laugh at him: for he seeth that his day is coming. Psalm 59:5 Thou therefore, O LORD God of hosts, the God of Israel, awake to visit all the heathen: be not merciful to any wicked transgressors. Selah.
Don's answer is obviously "Yes," which is the wrong answer. God says that He does not delight in the death of the wicked (Ezek. 33:11). How much less could the Deity delight in the endless torment of those He loves. Laughter, especially in the contexts of the verses Don quotes, is not always a sign of delight, but for effect. But, like other questions, this one tells more of the heart of the answerer.

72. Can God be glorified by that which gives Him no pleasure?
Of course! God is glorified each and every single day! God destroys all of which that gives Him no pleasure and sin is the top of His list!
While in the abstract I agree with Don's short answer. However his long answer lacks somewhat. God will destroy sin. He will destroy the works of the Adversary, but He will not do this by enshrining it in a Divine Concentration Camp called hell. His destruction of sin, and the works of the Adversary does not include the destruction of sinners. God's Plan is to save sinners, all sinners, all those who are lost. He will be glorified in the universal acclamation that Jesus Christ is Lord.

73. As Jesus "tasted death for every man," can it be true that "the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hands," if a part are never saved? (Heb. 2:9)
Yes it is true. The payment for sin for all of mankind is now available freely to those that will receive this gift. The key word here is RECEIVE. Scripture doesn't say those that are forced to believe. By now, after going through this questionaire, you should have a very good grasp at God's holy nature. If not, you are in dire straits.
The verse partially quoted in the question, but not referenced, is Isaiah 53:10. Let me quote it in it's entirety "Yet it was the will of the LORD to bruise Him (Christ); He was put to grief; when He makes Himself an offering for sin, HE shall see His offspring, HE shall prolong His days; the will of the LORD shall prosper in His hand; HE shall see the fruit of the travail of His soul and be satisfied; by HIS knowledge shall the righteous One, My Servant, make many to be accounted righteous; and He shall bear their iniquities" (RSV). God will be satisfied with the fruit produced by the death of His Son. Would God be satisfied with only a few, when Christ in fact "tasted death for every man" (Heb. 2:9). It is true, the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in the salvation of all for whom Christ died. The payment for the sins of all mankind has not only been made, but has been accepted by God (1 John 2:2). Don is wrong: the key is not to receive; that's a work. Salvation is a gift. It is given by God to those who believe the evangel, that "Christ died for our sins, was buried and rose again." Even the faith to believe the evangel is given by God as well. Salvation is totally a work of God, sovereignly given. The free will that this teacher touts is found nowhere in the Word of God.

74. If God "declares the end from the beginning," can the final destiny of mankind be contrary to His will?
Because of mankind's freewill. Adam and Eve had freewill to chose between good and evil and we are all descendants of Adam and Eve, are we not? Then what makes you so different from Adam and Eve then?
Scripture clearly reveals that God "knows the end from the beginning." The Bible is full of prophecies, very specific prophecies, some fulfilled and some not yet fulfilled. If free will is so, then God cannot know the future, and surely cannot predict it. If every action of every man is subject to his own independent and free choice, unknown and uncaused by God, or by any outside cause, then prophecy cannot exist, and God's declaration that He knows the end from the beginning is a lie. This teacher's faulty theology is built on this single denial of the Deity of God and the truthfulness of His Word. He insists that God does somehow (how is not explained) know the future; is powerless to save a single soul; and will derive pleasure for all eternity from the torture of helpless humanity!

75. Can endless misery be brought about contrary to the GOOD PLEASURE of the Almighty?
You are repeating yourself again here. This question has already been answered above.
I'll pass on this one too.

76. Can God WILL anything contrary to His knowledge?
Again, you misunderstand scripture. 2 Peter 3:9 does not say that all WILL come to repentance, but that all SHOULD come to repentance. 'Will' and 'should' are two different words.
God is operating all things according the counsel of His own will (Eph 1:11). God is not operating anything according to the fickle will of man.

77. Did God know when He created man, that a part of His creatures would be endlessly miserable?
Yes. Only God is omniscient, omnipotent and omnipresent. His knows everything for He created everything. God did not create robots, He created real live living tissue called flesh. This flesh has free will. When this flesh sins, it dies as was promised by God to Adam and Eve. God did not lie for Adam and Eve both died.
See #74 above. He knows the words, but apparently doesn't think about them. How can God be omniscient, if free will is true? How can God be omnipotent, if He is powerless to save those He loves? How can God be omnipresent, if He will be eternally separated from the vast majority of His creatures, who are confined in hell forever? Of course, the human will is real, functioning. But it is not free and unfettered. Of course, God did not create robots. But the Scriptures do use the figures of God as Potter and mankind as clay, "vessels fitted for destruction" and "vessels of honor." God knew, and planned for, the sin of Adam and Eve, having preplanned the cross of Christ. God knew the full details of His Plan before it ever started. And His Plan does not include the tormenting the majority of His creatures forever.

78. If God, when He created, did not know the result of creation, is He infinite in knowledge?
Your "if" is incorrect and unscriptural. For He knew us in our mother womb, even before!
How could God have known us, the unique persons we individually are, before we were in our mother's womb, if free will is true? Think about it.

79. Power is the ability to do: is knowledge simply the ability to know?
No.
Correct.

80. If God knew when He created man, that some would be eternally wretched, did He not will this to be their doom?
Sin did not exist in the Garden of Eden! Everything God created up until the entrance of sin upon mankind was pronounced "good" by God. Genesis 1:31 And God saw ***every thing*** that he had made, and, behold, [it was] ***very good***. It is the sin of mankind that is not good. God cannot be a part of any sin whatsoever. God does not force salvation unto all creation. God did not force Lucifer to fall from heaven, it was Lucifer HIMSELF (Ezekiel 28:17) that corrupted himself. Not God. Likewise with Adam and Eve. Both were created in perfection, completely immortal until they chose to sin which brought forth death.
This oft repeated paragraph doesn't answer the question which was asked. I understand Don's reluctance to implicate God with sin. But a refusal to deal with the issue does not answer it. God knew the sin of Adam would occur. It was an integral, and necessary, part of His plan. The "fall" of mankind into sin was God's will. It is God's will which is operative in the world, not mankind's. God knew, not only the end from the beginning, but each step along the way. The subjection of mankind to their experience of evil is the will of God (Rom. 8:20, Isa. 45:7).

81. If God willed the endless misery of a part of His creatures, why is it said that "he will have all men to be saved?" -- (1 Tim. 2:4)
This question is getting very very old. This has already been answered several other times in this question list.
I don't recall this specific question being asked already. Why would God will, or even desire, something which He knows can never occur, or will never occur, especially if He had already willed otherwise? God "will have all men to be saved." Case closed. Even Don wouldn't waste his time desiring something he knows won't happen. See his answer #63. Thankfully the God of the Scriptures is not like He is being here portrayed.

82. If the Scriptures should testify, that God "will have all men to be damned," could we safely infer that a part might be saved?
But the scriptures do not say this. All men who will believe and accept this free gift. Not all have this faith. All creation has had the good news preached to them. Matthew 28:30, Mark 16:15-16.
We are told that every man is free to accept the gift of salvation. That simply is not true. Jesus said, "No man can come unto me, except the Father draw Him" (John 6:44). Salvation is given by God to those of his choice (Acts 13:48). He is the One with free will, not humanity. God's will will be accomplished. So the question, which Don refused to answer, is on point. If the Scriptures had said that God "will have all men to be damned," then we would have no basis for believing that any would be saved. But the Scriptures do say the opposite, that God "will have all men to be saved." The fact that it is not yet apparent, even at the death of each individual, is no reason for not believing God!

83. If the Scriptures testify, that God "will have all men to be saved," can we safely infer that a part may be damned?
Yes of course. God's will is for everyone to be saved, but all are not saved therefore, God does not always get His way. This is to His glory. When a Christian commits sin, is that God's will?????
Strange, for one who claims to believe in God's omnipotence! This is not faith, but credulity, to believe that it is to God's glory to not get His way. Nothing can stay God's hand; no one can resist God's will (Dan. 4:35).

84. If God made an endless hell before He created man, did He know there would be any use for it?
Scripture does not say that hell was created before He created man. For sin was not entered into. Yes of course God knew that there would be use for it.
Neither does Scripture say that such a place exists even now. The only "hell" that exists now is sheol/hades, the unseen, i.e. the state of death, where all the dead are, believer and unbeliever alike. But they aren't conscious; they aren't being punished. Gehenna, and the Lake of Fire, are future. Neither is endless.

85. If God knew there would be use for an endless hell, must He not have created some men for endless misery?
Yes of course God knew.
He dodged the question, again -- the logical conclusion to his position. But, if Satan had free will, and if mankind has free will, how did God know they would sin?

86. If God made an endless hell, was it included in the works which He pronounced "very good?" -- (Gen. 1:31)
No, because satan had not fallen yet, for all was very good.
See #84 above.

87. If there be an endless hell, and it was not made before the creation of men, when was it made?
Between the fifth and sixth day, angels were created. Angels existed before mankind did (Gen 2:7) Lucifer and his angels fell from heaven sometime after Genesis 2:25 and before 3:1. Lucifer became the serpent who was evil. The serpent lied to Eve and that is the first sin of the spirit, but not of the flesh. Eve committed the first sin of the flesh.
Scripture doesn't say specifically when angels were created. It is apparent, more yet probable, and at least possible, that the destruction which took place between Gen. 1:1 and Gen. 1:2 was the result of angelic activity, which would put their creation before any of the days of Genesis. This agrees with Job 38:4-7, which says that the angels shouted for joy when the earth was created. Satan never "fell," he sinned from the beginning (1 John 3:8). He was created to be the Adversary. But, of course none of this answers the question. See #84 above.

88. If there be a personal devil, who made him?
God created all angels and they were all very good Gen 1:31. But Lucifer corrupted himself (Ezekiel 28:11-19). God did not corrupt him because scripture says that lucifer was created in perfection.
God created the waster to destroy. The Adversary sinned (1 John 3:8), and was a murderer (John 8:44), in the beginning, that is, his beginning. If Satan had been created perfect, then how could He have sinned. Either God made him with the capacity to sin, or God's assessment that he was perfect was in error.

89. Can there be any such thing as sin in heaven?
No and that is why any angel that sinned was cast away from the presence of God into hell awaiting judgment.
While it is true that there are some angels "held in prison" in a place called "tartarus," awaiting the judgment of God, it is not true that "hell" (gehenna) is the residence of fallen angels, or demons, or the devil. That is simply "Christian" mythology borrowed lock-stock-and-barrel from pagan Roman mythology, via Dante and Milton. The book of Job states that Satan attends conferences in heaven with God, even taking part in conversation with God (Job 1:6-12). 2 Chronicles 18:22 gives an interesting account of a conference in heaven in which "a spirit came forward and stood before the LORD, saying, 'I will entice [Ahab].' And the LORD said to him, 'By what means?' And he said, 'I will go forth, and will be a lying spirit in the mouth of all his prophets.' And He said, 'You are to entice him, and you shall succeed; go forth and do so.' Now therefore behold, the LORD has put a lying spirit in the mouth of these your prophets; the LORD has spoken evil concerning you." Again, Don errs, not being familiar with the Scriptures.

90. If there was sin in heaven, may not sin be committed there again?
Scripture does not say that sin was committed in heaven, nor does scripture ever say that sin will enter into heaven at any time.
See #89 above.

91. If an angel of light became a devil, was not Paul in error, when he said Satan is transformed into an angel of light? -- (2 Cor 11:14)
No, because satan is given the power by God to deceive and fool those who do not believe Him and want to believe a lie. God gives them the desires of their hearts (Romans 1:20-30).
Dodging the question again. Everything after "because" is a diversion, not an answer to the question. Scripture says Satan was created to be what he is. Don's continual references, and the common belief of many Christians, regarding "Lucifer" ("Light bringer") are incorrect. "Lucifer" is not the name of Satan; it is a mistranslation from Isa. 14, a reference to a human being, not the Adversary. Satan was never an angel of light. But he does impersonate one now (2 Cor. 11:14), indicating that his chief activity is in the field of religion (2 Cor. 11:15), not human frailty, morality, criminal activity, civil strife, etc.

92. As sin presupposes temptation of some sort, who tempted a holy angel to sin?
Free will. Angels were created with free will just as Adam and Eve. All were created in perfection. Do you not believe this?
If Satan had been created perfect, then how could He have sinned? Either God made him with the capacity to sin, or God's assessment that he was perfect was in error. If Adam and Eve were perfect, and went on to sin, then it was God Who sinned, in declaring them perfect. But He didn't say they were perfect. He declared that His creation was good, i.e. as He planned, what He intended (Gen 1:31).

93. If an angel could sin without a devil to tempt him, may we not sin without a devil to tempt us?
No. Because we all have sinful nature due to Adam and Eve. The devil tempts all. Lucifer was higher in power and rank than the other angels in heaven (Ezekiel 28:11-19) and led all angels in worship.
These questions are all closely related. By "angel" the questioner obviously meant Satan, based on the common fallacy that Satan, or Lucifer, fell. The obvious meaning of the question then is, "if Satan" could have been tempted without an external "tempter," cannot we also be tempted and without external cause. When Don says that "the devil tempts all," he is simply mistaken. James says that we are tempted by our own internal desires, we don't need an external force, be it the Adversary or any other. Ezekiel 28 has nothing to do with "Lucifer" (a fictitious character) or the Adversary.

94. If a holy angel was tempted to sin by surrounding evil, is heaven a holy place?
Do you not believe scripture? If you do not, then why are you asking these idiotic stupid questions? If you do believe in scripture, then why do you ask such nonsensical garbage? Heaven is holy, whether or not you believe in this or not.
"Holy angel" is still Satan, I repeat, based on the false notion that he "fell." How did Satan "fall?" What tempted him? What was it that made a perfect being sin, other than God making Him that way, or making it possible for him to sin?

97. If Adam became mortal (that is, subject to death,) by sinning, must he not have been created immortal?
Yes, as I have stated about 5 times already.
Of course, nowhere do the Scriptures say that Adam was created immortal. In fact, in order for Adam and Eve to continue to live, were it not for their sinning and becoming mortal, they would have to have eaten from the tree of life, and apparently continued to eat from it. So while they were not mortal, or dying, neither were they intrinsically immortal. Certainly no part of them was separately immortal. Neither their bodies, not their souls, nor their spirits, were separately inherently immortal.

98. If Adam had been created immortal, could he ever have died?
No.
See #97 above.

99. If Adam sinned without inheriting total depravity, why should inborn depravity be assigned as the cause of our sins?
Your 'if' is wrong again. God told him that if one should eat of the tree of knowledge, you shall surely die. God was not joking around now wasn't He?
Apparently Don didn't understand the question. The cause of Adam's descendants' sins, is generally regarded to be our "fallen human nature," our "sin nature." But what caused Adam's sin? Adam didn't have a "fallen" nature yet! Was it a flaw within him, part of his constitution? Obviously he wasn't perfect, as Don asserts.

100. Would there be any more impropriety in imputing MY sins to Adam, than in imputing HIS sins to ME?
Yes there would be, because you are a descendant from Adam, therefore your assumption is false. Adam HAD an immortal body, you did not at any time. Big difference.
I agree here with Don's short answer. Adam's sins aren't imputed to the race, but because of Adam's sin the race did inherit mortality, we were plunged into mortality, sin and death (Rom. 5:12). We, his descendants, are born constitutionally sinners, lacking of the glory and vitality of God (Rom. 3:23). We are mortal, dying sinners. Adam had no immortal body. That has been address above (#57).

101. If men are totally depraved by nature, must not children be so likewise?
Men are not totally depraved by nature for God gives them the knowledge of His existence (Romans 1:20). All of His creation have knowledge of Him. Man is depraved according to their inability to save themselves from the wrath of God.
See #104 below.

102. If children be totally depraved, is it true, that "of such is the kingdom of heaven?" -- (Mark 10:14)
Again, mankind is not completely totally depraved (Romans 1:20). All creation knows about God's existence as evidenced by the stars in the sky and everything created.
See #104 below.

103. Men are to be washed from their sins. If they are totally depraved, what is there to wash?
You said that they were completely totally depraved, I didn't.
See #104 below.

104. If evil men and seducers "wax worse and worse," (2 Tim. 3:13), can they be totally depraved at first?
You said that they were completely totally depraved, I didn't.
Apparently the questioner doesn't believe in "total depravity;" but Don, at the same time, doesn't understand "total depravity." So both are talking past each other. In his answer #101 above, Don says that man is "not totally depraved," but he "is depraved." In the other questions he objects to the term "completely totally depraved." While the phrase "total depravity" is not a scriptural expression, it does, nevertheless, come from the classic debate between Calvinism and Arminianism. While the term is not scriptural, the concept is, and agrees with what Don has stated in #101 ("Man is depraved according to their inability to save themselves . . . "). The concept of total depravity doesn't mean that men are totally evil, as bad as they can possibly be, but that they are totally unable to save themselves. Men are "dead in trespasses and sins" (Eph. 2:1). They are unable to come to God, or do anything to save themselves from their condition as dying sinners (John 6:44). It means that men can only act according to their nature, which is not completely bad or good (Matt. 7:11). So, yes, even, "totally depraved" humanity can get worse, as far as their practice of sin is concerned, or conversely, they can get better, even appearing to be good men, philanthropists. But they cannot save themselves, or choose to believe in or follow God.

105. If human reason be "carnal and delusive," why did Jehovah say, "come now and let us REASON together?" -- (Isa. 1:18)
God was speaking to only His believers in Him that have fallen away into sin.
No comment.

106. If reason be delusive, why should some folks reason against the use of reason?
And you just made my point. A non-believer cannot reason beyond delusion. Therefore Isa 1:18 is only referring to His believers. Thank you kindly.
No comment.

107. Can an effect exist without a cause sufficiently powerful to produce it?
No.
True. Good so far.

108. If "we love God because he first loved us," is it true that we must first love HIM before He will love us?
No. That is faulty reasoning as scripture says that God first loved us.
Correct.

109. If "we love God because he first loved us," is it not plain that He loved US when we did not love HIM?
Yes, it is very plain.
Correct.

110. If God loved US when we did not love HIM, is not our love to Him the EFFECT (and not the CAUSE) of His love to US?
Yes. 1John 4:18 There is no fear in love; but perfect love casteth out fear: because fear hath torment. He that feareth is not made perfect in love.
1John 4:19 We love him, because he first loved us. John 16:27 For the Father himself loveth you, because ye have loved me, and have believed that I came out from God.
Correct.

111. Was it consistent with divine justice, to love us, when we did not love Him?
Yes.
Correct.

112. If God once loved us, will not that love eternally continue?
Yes, but only for those that belong to Him. 1 John 4:19 uses the word "us"---not everyone forever. God does not love satan. God hates evil. Romans 8:8 So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God. James 4:4 Ye adulterers and adulteresses, know ye not that the friendship of the world is enmity with God? whosoever therefore will be a friend of the world is the enemy of God.
So, God's love can be turned off and on like a spigot; God does not love everyone forever. Let's consider this position logically. God loved "Lucifer" when He first created him a perfect angel; but once he rebelled against God, God's love for him, presumably, ceased. By this same logic, God would have loved Adam at first, but when he sinned, i.e. rebelled against God, would not God's love for him have ceased? And what of his descendants? When does God's love for us begin, and when does it end? Does He love us when we are "innocent," and hate us when we become sinners by the exercise of our "free will?" Then does His love rekindle when we again exercise our "free wills" to receive Christ and become saved? What if we fall away? Will His love again cease? Am I the only person who thinks this whole scenario is absurd? God's Word says that God loves the whole world of sinners. He loves us when we are sinners (including the "us" of 1 John 4:19). His love for us does not begin when we are saved. And His love, being His chief attribute, will never cease. All His actions towards all of His creatures are based on His love, which will be requited when God becomes All in all.

113. If the love of God is the cause which produces love in man, can anger and wrath produce the same effect?
Not all mankind has perfect love, only those that belong to Christ (1John 4:18).
A good question, but, unhappily, another non-answer.

114. Is it the revealed will of God that all men should be saved?
Yes, all men SHOULD be saved, but not all WILL be saved. It is God's will that no one, especially Christians, should still be sinning, but they still do. It was God's will every single angel was created in perfection and none were lost, up until Lucifer led a rebellion and war in heaven. Then God lost some of His angels to satan. That wasn't God's will. It was God's will for all angels to be in heaven with Him, otherwise, who did they get there in the first place!
Yes, period. Don Hewey's God is too small, with all due credit to J. B. Phillips.

115. Can God will all men to be saved, knowing that a part will be forever lost?
Yes absolutely and Jesus Christ said this many times.
Absolutely not.

116. If God has two wills, why is double-mindedness condemned in the Scriptures?
It is not double mindedness, man is doubleminded. Big difference. Man sins, God does not, remember? Is it God's will for man to sin? If it was, that would make God the author of sin, which is sin in itself.
No comment.

117. If God has two wills, why does the Bible say, "He is of one mind?"
The will and the mind are two distinct different things. Didn't Jesus reach out to the poor, the sick, the handicapped, the Jews, the Gentiles, the Romans, etc.? Did all accept Jesus Christ good news? Hardly not. Was it the will of God for all of those to be saved? ABSOLUTELY. Otherwise, what was Jesus doing sharing the gospel with all of those that were lost!
Incorrect quote on the part of the questioner, so the question becomes irrelevant. What Don says in response is totally off the mark. Jesus did not, in fact, reach out to Gentiles or Romans. He came to His own (the Jews) exclusively. He came as "a minister of the Circumcision to confirm the promises made to the Fathers by the Prophets" (Rom. 15:8). That all of Jesus' hearers did not accept Him was, in fact, the will of God. Jesus specifically said that He taught the masses in parables so that would not understand the truth, and so that they would not be converted (Mark 4:11-12). It was not the will of God for all Jesus hearers, then, to be saved. It is not the will of God that all mankind, now, be saved. In the present age God is calling out an elect group, called the ecclesia (the out-called). But in the end, at the consummation, all will be gathered together in one reconciled universe, and God will be All in all (Titus 2:11; 1 Tim. 2:6; 1 Cor. 15:21-28).

118. If God has a secret will, how did you gain a knowledge of it?
There is no secret will of God in scripture.
Irrelevant question. No comment.

119. Can that be a secret which has been revealed?
Everything of God is written in His word or do you not believe the bible? If you do not believe every single word in the bible, then why are we having this conversation?
Irrelevant question. No comment.

120. If God revealed His secret will to "the saints," why should they reveal it to "the wicked?"
Again, false assumption leading to a false question. Haven't you read Romans 1:20 yet? There is no excuse for not knowing God.
Irrelevant question. No comment.

121. If God under any circumstances, wills the endless misery of a human soul, in what does He differ from Satan?
That is blasphemy for even suggesting that satan and God share attributes. "...for the prince of this world cometh, and hath nothing in me."---John 14:30 Again, for the 50th time, it is satan that corrupted HIMSELF (Ezekiel 28:11-19), not God. God cannot sin. Lucifer led the rebellion in heaven, not God. It was God's will for all angels to be in heaven with Him, otherwise, who did they get there in the first place!
The question, of course, is based on the popular notion that Satan and demons will be tormenting mankind in hell forever. If this were the case, then Satan would, indeed, be acting as the agent of God, Who consigns sinners to hell in the first place. The truth is that this popular notion of hell is straight out of pagan mythology via Dante and Milton. "Again," I repeat, Satan couldn't have corrupted himself if he indeed had been created perfect in the first place.

122. Can Jesus Christ be the Savior of any more than He actually saves?
No.
Absolutely correct. Christ IS the Saviour of only those He actually saves. And 1 Tim 4:10 says that means "all mankind."

123. Can Jesus be "the Savior of the world," (1 John 4:14), if the world is not saved by him?
Because, Jesus Christ is the only Savior and there is none else (Isaiah 43:11, 45:21, Hosea 13:4), and not all have faith (2Thessalonian 3:2) and without faith, it is impossible to please God (Hebrews 11:6). Those that die without faith are still in their sins and shall eternally die apart from God (Romans 6:23, John 8:24).
1 Tim 4:10--"is the Saviour of all mankind," not "wants to be the Saviour of all mankind," not "wishes He were the Saviour of all mankind." The faith to be saved is sovereignly given by God (Acts 13:48), at present selectively, to the elect, ultimately, to all (Titus 2:11, 1 Tim. 2:6).

124. Is Christ, in any sense, the Savior of unbelievers?
Yes, because Jesus Christ came not to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance and to save those that were lost (Matthew 18:11 and numerous others). But not all will believe.
This contradicts Don's answer #122. If Christ is the Saviour of only those He saves, then how can He be the Saviour of unbelievers. Of course 1 Tim. 4:10 says "all mankind." It sounds like Don is suggesting that Jesus is the potential Saviour of unbelievers, but not their actual Saviour. Jesus said "The Son of Man is come to seek and to save the lost." And example of "seeking and saving" is the parable of the lost sheep (Luke 15:4-7). The Shepherd sought the sheep. The shepherd found the sheep. The shepherd picked up the sheep and carried it home (i.e. saved the sheep). The shepherd didn't call for the sheep and wait until the sheep decided to jump into his arms. The sheep didn't exercise it's "free will." The dumb sheep had no part in it, except to get itself lost. All the action was on the part of the shepherd. Jesus seeks. Jesus saves. Those He seeks, He saves. And He IS the Saviour of all mankind. Free will has nothing to do with it.

125. If Christ be in no sense the Savior of unbelievers, why are unbelievers called upon to believe in Christ as their Savior?
You said it, I didn't. Christ is the only Savior and He created all creation, therefore only He can righteously judge them.
Another non-responsive answer. What does judging have to do with being their Saviour. The evangel, which men are called upon to believe, is summed up in 1 Cor. 15:1-4: Christ died for our sins, was buried and rose again. The Gospel is the power of God for salvation. Those who believe the gospel are saved. The gospel certainly proclaims that Christ is Saviour, He died "for us," for the whole world (1 John 2:2).

126. If unbelievers are not called upon to believe in Christ as their Savior, what are they to believe?
Unbelievers are still in their sin. Christ was sent to preach to those in sin, to save that which was lost (Matt. 18:11). Unbelievers are called to believe in Christ, for many are called but few are chosen. Some will believe only for a short while and fall away in unbelief.
See #124 and #125 above.

127. Must not the thing to be believed, be true before it is believed?
God is not a "thing," but the only living God. Only God is true and every man a liar (Romans 3:4). There is no darkness in God whatsoever. "...that God is light, and in him is no darkness at all."---1John 1:5
See #124 and #125 above. Again, apparently Don has misunderstood the question! After so many questions doesn't he realize how these work, that they are grouped together, and build upon previous ones? Men are called upon to believe the evangel, the gospel, which Paul summed up in 1 Cor. 15:1-4: Christ died for our sins, was buried and rose again. The Gospel is the power of God for salvation. It is a proclamation of objective truth. Those who believe the gospel are saved. It is not an offer to be accepted.

128. Must not the thing to be believed continue to be true, whether it be believed or disbelieved?
God must believed in to please God. Unbelief is enmity against God. Hebrews 11:6 But without faith [it is] impossible to please [him]: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and [that] he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him.
1 Cor. 15:1-4 -- Christ died for our sins, was buried and rose again. Objective truth. It is true, whether believed or not. Don's answer is unrelated to the question.

129. "What if some did not believe? Shall their unbelief make the faith, [or faithfulness] of God of none effect?" -- (Rom. 3:3)
No. Romans 3:4 "God forbid: yea, let God be true, but every man a liar;..."
Correct.

130. Is it true that "God hath concluded all in unbelief that he might have mercy on all?" -- (Rom 9:32)
Typo in your reference, you meant Romans 11:32. The "them" in verse 32 is Israel. 11:25 & 26 illustrate this. The Jews were blinded and the Gentiles were grafted in.
The fact that the "them" is Israel doesn't change the fact that those very Israelites who were "concluded in unbelief" by God, are the very ones who will later "receive mercy."

131. Can God be "especially the Savior of them who believe," unless He be actually the Savior of all? -- (1 Tim. 4:10)
Misapplication of this verse: "1Tim 4:10 For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God,..." The Greek word for 'specially' here is exclusive of believers, not those in unbelief. Do a word study on the Greek word "malista." Especially in Acts 25:26, where only King Agrippa is judging Paul the Apostle. No one else was judging Paul except Agrippa. "Especially" in Acts 25:26 would also have to include Festus and the others in judging Paul and we clearly see in the entire chapter 25 that this is not so.
The verse is not misapplied; Don simply doesn't believe it. 1 Tim. 4:10 -- "For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially (malista) of those that believe." The Greek word malista (Strong's #3122) means specially, especially, or chiefly. It does not mean exclusively. The basic sentence says that God is the Saviour of all men (or all mankind). Since all mankind are not yet saved, it is apparent that the salvation of those who presently believe is special. In a special way God is the Saviour of those who now believe, but God is, nevertheless, the Saviour of all men (Titus 2:11, 1 Tim. 2:6).

132. If belief and good works in this life, be essential to eternal salvation in the next, can infants be saved?
Again, you said it, I didn't. No where in scripture is it stated that works are required for salvation. Only belief. (Ephesians 2:8-9 and a multitude of others). No one can add to the already perfected work done on the cross by Jesus Christ. Anything else is imperfection and an insult to the perfect one and only sacrifice (Hebrews 10:26).
Correct. Salvation is by faith, not works (Eph. 2:8-9). Faith alone, sovereignly given by God (Acts 13:48). No free will. Free will is an insult to God, and a denial of salvation by grace through faith. Don doesn't bother to answer the question about infants. Infants, of course, cannot exercise their free will, nor can they believe. Since they are among those who "are dying in Adam," they will also be included among those who "shall be made alive in Christ" (1 Cor. 15:22).

133. Can the good actions of finite man merit an infinite reward?
I am assuming you are only referring to mankind that believes: the answer is yes insofar as the good action of believing in Christ. This belief is a result of faith given by God (Ephesians 2:8) and not of ourselves, for it is a gift. Not all will respond to this calling, for many are called, but few are chosen.
It's obvious, from the immediate context of questions, that the questioner is referring to mankind in general, not believers. The answer, of course, is "No." There is no action performed by mankind that merits salvation (an infinite reward). Salvation is not by works. But Don proceeds to contradict himself. He states, correctly, that belief in Christ is a result of faith given by God as a gift. Excellent. But then he insists on bring in this mythological free will.

134. Can the evil actions of finite man merit infinite punishment?
Yes.
This has been covered earlier. The answer, of course, is "No." Don does not believe that man is finite. He believes, like most other believers, the error that men are inherently immortal.

135 If men are saved by works, is salvation of grace?
Again, false statement, false assumption.
Men are saved by grace, not works.

136. If one man is saved by grace, why should not all be saved in like manner?
All of the parable in the four gospels illustrate God reaching out to all mankind: the righteous and the unrighteous. God is not a respecter of persons and Jesus Christ clearly walked that walk throughout scripture. God outstretched His hand to all of the lost, but not all accepted even the miracles that Jesus Christ did that no one had ever seen before. In fact, most of them wanted to kill Him even more. So why is this so? Man's freewill!
See #117 above. It should be apparent to all by now that the keystone of Don Hewey's theology is free will, a concept which is denied and contradicted throughout God's Word.

137. Is God a partial being?
Yes, for God is not a respecter of persons.
Duh? God is not a respecter of persons, but He is partial??? Perhaps a dictionary should have been consulted before answering this question. Indeed, God is not a respecter of persons; He is also not partial. See the next answer.

138. Can the faith of the Partialists be based in the wisdom that is "full of mercy and good fruits, without partiality?" -- (James 3:17)
Yes.
The "wisdom that is full of mercy and . . . without partiality" is indeed "from above," i.e. wisdom from God, who is not partial. Don, believing as he does in free will, does believe that God is partial. God is partial to those who, of their own free will and choice, choose to receive the gift of salvation. Don apparently believes that God's "election" is based on His foreknowledge. However, the Scriptures teach that God is impartial. His choice of "the elect" is not based on anything in the person, not even their foreseen faith. Regarding God's choice of Jacob over Esau, Scripture says that God chose them before they did good or evil, so that the choice would clearly be His and not theirs, not based on anything they did (Rom. 9:11-13). God does not choose them because He knows ahead of time that they will believe in Him. He chooses them because He chooses them. It is His choice, based on His will, alone.

139. Can sufficient provision be made for the salvation of all men, if some men are never saved?
Yes and Jesus Christ has already provided this. There is no other Savior and no other name for salvation (Acts 4:12). No other sacrifice for sin (Hebrews 10:26).
See #141, since these questions are interrelated.

140. Must not sufficient provision be sufficient to subdue the will of the creature?
So you have just admitted to the existence of the freewill of man. Sufficient provision has been scripturally shown to be more than sufficient, otherwise no one in scripture would have been saved!
See #141, since these questions are interrelated.

141. Is there any other way to determine the sufficiency of the means employed, than by the accomplishment of the end designed?
Yes, there is. You must be able to understand and see that God had reached out to all of His creation equally, then you can fully understand the end accomplishment.
In what way can it be said that "God has reached out to all of His creation equally"? This is absurd. Mere knowledge of God's existence is not enough to save. The majority of mankind will have lived their entire lives without ever hearing the good news, God's power to save, or that "only Name under heaven, given among men, whereby we must be saved" (Acts 4:12). No one who believes the Scriptures at all believes that the provision is insufficient. The precious blood of Christ is indeed sufficient, as all would admit, for the salvation of all mankind. The point of difference is whether that provision is actual or potential, efficacious or conditional. 1 John 2:2 says that Christ is the propitiation, the expiation, the atonement, for all the sins of all the world, believer and unbeliever alike. Don has mistaken the mere admission of a will in mankind for acceptance of his free will myth. The provision God has made for our salvation is in accord with His will, and His ability to achieve that will, and affect the puny will of the creature.

142. Does not the law of God require all men to love him supremely, and their neighbors as themselves?
Yes. But do all men follow the law? (Romans 3:10, 23).
This line of reasoning (Questions 142-147) is faulty. No comment.

143. Is it true, that "not one jot or tittle of this law shall pass till all be fulfilled?" -- (Matt. 5:18)
Yes.
This line of reasoning (Questions 142-147) is faulty. No comment.

144. Does not justice require of us the fulfillment of the law of God?
Wrong wording. We cannot fulfill the law. No where in scripture does it say that man can fulfill the law! Righteousness is only by faith. Read Romans chapter 3.
This line of reasoning (Questions 142-147) is faulty. No comment.

145. Will not justice be eternally violated, if the law of God be not universally fulfilled?
No. The law of God has already been perfectly absolutely fulfilled by Jesus Christ. There is no other sacrifice for sin (Hebrews 10:26).
This line of reasoning (Questions 142-147) is faulty. No comment. With regards to Don's answer, he is correct. The law of God has been completely fulfilled by Christ in His perfect life. But, not only that; all sin has been judged in the death of Christ. There is indeed no other sacrifice necessary. Christ is the propitiation, the atonement, the expiation, for all the sins of all the world. They are paid (1 John 2:2).

146. Can they fulfill the law of love who are rendered eternally miserable?
Ridiculous question and one not taught in scripture. No one apart from Christ can do anything. For apart from Him, we can do nothing. John 15:5 I am the vine, ye [are] the branches: He that abideth in me, and I in him, the same bringeth forth much fruit: for without me ye can do nothing.
This line of reasoning (Questions 142-147) is faulty. No comment.

147. Can justice require the obedience of the sinner, and at the same time require his eternal disobedience?
No.
This line of reasoning (Questions 142-147) is faulty. No comment.

148. If whoso "offereth praise glorifieth God," (Ps. 1:23), can He be glorified by those who have no cause to praise Him?
No one can praise God unless God give's them the power to do so (John 15:5).
Don has given contradictory answers to variations of this question. On the one hand he has said that God is not the God of those in hell (the dead) (see his answer #149 below), and they have no reason to be obedient to God (see his answer #50 above); on the other hand he has said that those in hell would be among those who "bow the knee and confess with their mouth to the glory of God." (See his answer #157 below). It's funny, God has no problem "forcing" those in hell (i.e. giving them the power to so confess Christ), but is unable to "force" people in this life to do anything against their wills. Obviously Don hasn't thought this free will thing through.

149. If any one be rendered eternally miserable, can he have any cause to praise His Maker?
Absolutely not. God is not God of the dead, but of the living (Luke 20:38).
Correct, but not for the reason given here. It is true that the dead do not praise God, but it's because they are not conscious. And this is true of all the dead, believers and unbelievers alike. Surely God will not place anyone consciously in such a state of being eternally miserable. Such action would not be praiseworthy.

150. Will God ever place some of his creatures in such a situation they cannot praise him?
Rev 16:11 And blasphemed the God of heaven because of their pains and their sores, and repented not of their deeds.
The questioner apparently does not understand the truth about the death state, that it is one of unconsciousness. All men do, in fact, enter "such a situation" where they cannot praise God, when they die. Psa. 115:17: "the dead praise not the LORD." Eccl. 9:10: "for there is no work, nor device, nor knowledge, nor wisdom, in the grave, whither thou goest." But the question is still valid to ask of those who believe God will cast mankind into hell, where they cannot praise God. However, Revelation 16:11 is not the end of the story, so the fact that they did not yet, at this juncture, repent is no proof of their final state or destiny.

151. Do you believe that endless punishment would manifest the glory of God?
Yes, unless if you do not believe the bible. 2Thessalonians 1:6 Seeing [it is] a righteous thing with God to recompense tribulation to them that trouble you; Psalm 94:20 Shall the throne of iniquity have fellowship with thee, which frameth mischief by a law? Rev 18:20 Rejoice over her, [thou] heaven, and [ye] holy apostles and prophets; for God hath avenged you on her.
None of the verses Don quoted have anything to do with the length or nature of punishment, or the final destiny of mankind. Surely God will deal with sin and judgment in all. But the glory of God will be the final outcome of God's plan. God will be All in all, which could never occur if eternal torment were true.

152. Can you rejoice in the hope of the glory of God?
Yes of course. The bible promises this. Rev 18:20 Rejoice over her, [thou] heaven, and [ye] holy apostles and prophets; for God hath avenged you on her.
Rev. 18:20 is an example of rejoicing because of the judgment of God. Yes, the judgment of God is one of the means by which God will receive glory. No one would dispute this. But the greatest glory God will receive will be at the consummation when Christ has completed His mediatorial work, when every enemy has been destroyed, the last of which is death, and He turns over to God the Father the entire reconciled universe, and God is All in all, when every knee bows and every tongue confesses that Jesus is Lord, to the glory of God the Father (1 Cor. 15:21-28).

153. Would not the salvation of half of mankind glorify God more than the salvation of one-fourth?
No. No one bit, because even if one more soul were added to the book of life that had one sin that was not forgiven, sin would enter heaven. Psalm 94:20 Shall the throne of iniquity have fellowship with thee, which frameth mischief by a law?
Ridiculous answer! Does Don believe that when a person is saved he isn't completely saved? Is he suggesting that a believer, after he is saved, must confess and repent of each and every individual sin in order for it to be forgiven, lest he "go to hell"? Are we only saved conditionally? Nonsense! Don seems to be unable to understand, or to grasp, that we, who believe in the Universal Reconciliation of all to God, actually believe in the salvation of each one. We do not believe that God will populate heaven with sinners. God will not allow sin to exist in believers for ever. God will not allow sin to exist forever. Don, however, believes that sin will exist forever, in hell. But then, if God is really omnipresent, and sin can't exist in His presence . . . ? Oh, well, I guess that's just His immediate presence, not His omnipresence! (I speak as a fool!) (See #156 below)

154. Would not the salvation of nine-tenths of mankind glorify God more than the salvation of one-half?
Only if each and every single one were to have faith in Jesus Christ and confessing Him as LORD. Forget about 9/10's of mankind, how about 11/12 of the disciples???? Not all of the disciples were even saved! Read Psalm 109:5-20 regarding Judas.
See my answer #154 above. The question involves salvation, and all that that entails.

155. Can we give "glory to God in the highest," without believing in the salvation of all men?
Of course! Are not the angels in heaven at this very moment doing this?!?!? Luke 15:10 Likewise, I say unto you, there is joy in the presence of the angels of God over one sinner that repenteth. Psalm 148:2 Praise ye him, all his angels: praise ye him, all his hosts.
This quote of the questioner is taken out of context, which makes the question incorrect. God rightly receives glory for each and every thing He does.

156. If "all have sinned, and (thus) come short of the glory of God," (Rom. 3:23), would eternal sinning mend the matter?
No it would not. And your point is moot, for all sin will be burning eternally and apart from God, for sin cannot enter into the presence of God.
As stated above (my answer #153 above), Don believes that sin will exist forever, in hell. And what happened to God's omnipresence, since, in Don's own words, "all of God's attributes are endless, infinite and never ceasing"? If God is omnipresent, and sin can't enter His presence, does that mean that God withdrew from the world when sin entered? Oh, well, I guess that's just His immediate presence, not His omnipresence! (I speak as a fool!) Dante's hell, Milton's hell, Don's hell, orthodoxy's hell, if it existed, is nothing more than an eternal monument to sin and the devil, an eternal reminder that God has failed. But how can it exist, if God is omnipresent, and sin cannot enter into the presence of God? Such are the contradictions that this error spawns.

157. Shall "every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father?" -- (Philippians 2:11)
Absolutely! But from where? Some in heaven which are saved, some on Earth and the rest under the Earth for those in damnation. Confessing Jesus is LORD in that context is not all made unto salvation, for:
Luke 13:25 When once the master of the house is risen up, and hath shut to the door, and ye begin to stand without, and to knock at the door, saying, Lord, Lord, open unto us; and he shall answer and say unto you, I know you not whence ye are: Luke 13:26 Then shall ye begin to say, We have eaten and drunk in thy presence, and thou hast taught in our streets. Luke 13:27 But he shall say, I tell you, I know you not whence ye are; depart from me, all [ye] workers of iniquity.
Luke 13:28 There shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth, when ye shall see Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob, and all the prophets, in the kingdom of God, and you [yourselves] thrust out.
See my answer #148 above. Now wait a minute. Don has said elsewhere that God is not the God of the dead (those in hell) (see his answer #149 above and elsewhere), and that the dead have no obligation to praise God or be thankful, and to do so would be futile (see his answer #50 above). How then can this verse be fulfilled by those in hell? Especially if God can't force anybody to do anything, according to Don's doctrine of free will.

158. Is endless misery "good tidings of great joy which shall be to all people?"
Yes, for all people who are saved! Would you want heaven to be filled with those who are not washed from their sins? That would make God a sinner.
Like question #155 above, this quote of the questioner is taken out of context, which makes the question incorrect. But Don's answer is perverse, to say that the saved in heaven will rejoice at the misery of those in hell. All who are finally saved will be "washed from their sins." Doesn't Don understand the meaning of words? Universal Reconciliation does not mean populating heaven with sinners. Heaven will only be populated with the saved, redeemed, reconciled objects of God's love and affection, those for whom Jesus died. It's Don's free will that makes God a sinner, a failure, a liar.

159. Could man be endlessly miserable without being endlessly a sinner?
Easy. God gives everyone, what they have sowed. Wages are earned, not given. Romans 6:23 For the wages of sin [is] death; but the gift of God [is] eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
According to Don, sinner's deserve what they get. But, whether he's willing to admit it or not, his belief in free will results in the corollary being true also, that those who choose to be saved deserve to be as well. It is by their making the correct choice that they are saved, just as it is by the sinner's making the wrong choice that they are damned. Thus, according to Don's logic, his protestations notwithstanding, salvation is by works; it is earned. His use of the term "gift" is misleading, since he believes this gift is only given to those who make the right choice, by the exercise of their own free and independent will.

160. If sin exist eternally, can it be true that Christ was to finish the transgression, and to make and end of sin? -- (Dan. 9:34)
False question and assumption. Sin is not eternal. Punishment is. And death, pain, curse, etc. is also conquered with all finality (Revelation 21:4).
See Don's contradictory answer #156. Don's hell will, of necessity, be filled with not only sinners, but sin, because they have no obligations to obey God, according to Don; God is not God to the inhabitants of hell.

161. As Jesus gave himself a ransom for all men, can he ever "see the travail of his soul and be satisfied," if endless misery be true?
Yes, because God did everything in His power to save each and every single living soul from hell. Those that willfully deny Him, are willfully asking for hell (John 8:24).
"God did everything in His power to save each and every living soul from hell." This statement is defies credibility! The vast overwhelming majority of mankind will have lived their entire lives without ever knowing of the existence of Jesus, "the only name under heaven, given among men, whereby we must be saved" (Acts 4:12). They will have lived and died, never having been given even one "opportunity" to receive or reject the Saviour. They will never, in their lifetimes, have been warned to "flee from the wrath to come." Other than having given His Son a ransom for all mankind (1 Tim. 2:6), as the questioner states, God has done virtually nothing to save the vast majority of the world's population! In this lifetime God will indeed only save a comparative few. But God will not be satisfied until all for whom Christ died have been saved. Their sin is already paid for (1 John 2:2).

162. Do you hope that endless misery is true?
Yes, absolutely, the hotter hell is, the better it gets!
Don Hewey again reveals his heart (or lack of same), which is far-removed from the heart of God.

163. Is "faith the substance (or foundation) of things hoped for?" -- (Heb. 11:1)
Hebrews 11:1 Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen. The bible say's it is and I believe it. You should too.
Correct.

164. If endless misery be not a thing hoped for, can it be a part of the Christian faith?
Contradiction in terms: those that have faith in Jesus Christ are Christians and are not damned, but have eternal life (John 3:16 and numerous others). There are some on this earth right this second that desire hell. Why are there satan worshippers?
Obviously Don is the wrong person to ask this question. Based on his answer to #162 above, he desires hell to be true as well.

165. Is it certain that one soul will be eternally lost?
Ask Judas Iscariot. Ask lucifer and his angels (Matthew 25:41).
It is certain that "as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive" (1 Cor. 15:22). It is certain that "God is the Saviour of all mankind" (1 Tim. 4:10). It is certain that Jesus came to seek, and to save the lost (Luke 19:10). That includes Judas, who had no choice, but was ordained by God to betray the Saviour. That includes the Adversary, who was made to be what he is. That includes all mankind. That includes all God's enemies, whether they are in heaven or on earth (Col. 1:20). It is certain that not one will be eternally lost.

166. Is it certain that one soul will be saved?
Yes or are you calling Jesus Christ a liar?
Yes. It is certain that all will be saved.

167. Is it certain that all will not be damned?
Read John 3:16. Ask the thief on the cross if you have a chance to.
It is certain that none will be damned (judged) forever.

168. Is it certain that all will not be saved?
See question 165. Redundant questions are getting to be tiring at this point.
It is certain that all will be saved.

169. Can that be certain which is not decreed?
Then you are clearly denying scripture. Matthew 25:41 clearly shows the destiny of those that deny Jesus Christ.
No, only what has been decreed by God can be certain. When understood properly the parable in Matthew 25 has nothing to do with individuals, or with final destiny. Just look at the details, nothing is mentioned about faith in Christ or the evangel, just how Nations have treated Christ's brethren after the flesh, Israelites, during the Tribulation.

170. If it be certain that one soul will be saved, must there not be a decree concerning the salvation of a definite number?
Again, your application of 'if' is nonsensical. Scripture promises eternal life to those that believe and many in scripture believed. Do you not understand this simple concept yet? God already knows the exact number of those that will be saved and those damned.
And how is it that God knows this number? In your answer #79 you stated that knowledge is more than simply the ability to know. But you insist that men have free will. How can God know what free and independent choice men will make, unless He has some part in their making that choice?

171. If the number of the saved be definitely fixed, must not the number of the damned be equally definite?
Exactly. You are starting to learn something.
See #170 above.

172. If there be no certainty in relation to the final destiny of man, is not salvation a work of chance?
Contradiction in your earlier questions. I distinctly mentioned already that this number of souls is already known by God in question #170.
See #170 above.

173. What better is chance than Atheism?
Ridiculous assumption. Clearly seen and understood by all of His creation leaves the entire creation including mankind accountable to God. Romans 1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, [even] his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:
Knowledge of God's existence is not enough to save a person (James 2:19). Being thus "accountable" does not make a person "savable." In fact, if all mankind is accountable, and thus stand condemned, then the majority are, in fact, incapable of being saved, since they will never be given the opportunity to be saved in their lifetimes. Don's earlier statement that God has done everything in His power to save every soul on earth becomes even more absurd. Absolute credulity!

174. If God knew, when he created, what the end of each soul would be, is not that end as certain as if it was decreed?
Yes, absolutely. Only God is omniscient, omnipotent and omnipresent.
If the destiny of the saved and the lost is set by God, then how can it be by free will? And if the number of the lost is unalterably set by God, then why does Scripture say it is God's will to save all. How can God desire something that cannot occur? Ah, yes, God has done everything "in His power." God cannot save. He had no choice in the number of the saved and lost. He simply foreknew it, somehow, but is powerless to change it! Incredible!

175. Is not the merciful man always merciful to his beast?
No. Because since all flesh dies, and we only die once, then face one judgment, God will judge those who are santified by His blood and also those who have asked for damnation. When anyone turns away from the free gift of salvation, they are asking for damnation. God is righteous in that He will bless them with the desires of their heart.
This parroted credulity is getting wearisome. Men do not ask for damnation. Men do not turn away the free gift of salvation. The majority of mankind have never been shown that this free gift exists, much less been given the chance to turn it away. They have never been given the chance to reject God.

176. Will not the merciful God be always as merciful to His creatures, as the merciful man is to his beast?
Merciful to His creatures that are sanctified---yes. Those that deny Him are asking for damnation. God will bless them with what they ask for.
God will act in accord with His Nature, which is love.

177. Is it true that the "tender mercies of the Lord are over all his works?" -- (Ps. 145:9)
Yes. We are all under the period of grace. Once Jesus Christ comes, it is in judgment and grace ends at that moment. Judgment Day is time to pay for their sins.
Strange that the book of Psalms was written before this administration of grace, under the law. God's mercy and grace are always available. During different administrations emphases change. Christ Jesus has already paid for all sins (1 John 2:2). There is nothing yet to be paid for sin. God's mercy endures for ever (Psa.106:1, Psa. 107:1, Psa. 108:4).

178. Is it true that the Almighty is without variableness, or the shadow of turning?
Yes.
Correct.

179. Would there be any tender mercy in the infliction of endless misery?
Yes. God created all with freedom to choose between good and evil. Lucifer corrupted himself in the Garden of Eden (Ezekiel 28:11-19). Eve corrupted herself. No one made Eve eat the fruit. Men have free will (2Peter 2:10).
Incredible credulity! Incredible fiendishness! There is only One with absolute freedom of will and choice, and that is God, Who is operating all things after the counsel of His own will (Eph. 1:11).

180. Are the tender mercies of the Lord like unto the tender mercies of the wicked which are cruel?
This question has already been asked three previous times. Again, the LORD will give us the desires of our heart. Man has no excuse from accepting salvation (Romans 1:20) as the evidence of God is everywhere in creation. When one denys God, he is asking for damnation. God has no other choice.
Indeed, the question has been answered. That "God has no other choice" is absurd!

181. If God is not the Father of sinners, why should sinners pray, saying, "Our Father, forgive us our trespasses?"
Misapplication of wording. An unbeliever does not pray. A believer does. Big difference. Those that believe are washed and forgiven of their sins---past, present and future sins. read Matthew 18:11. All have sinned (Romans 3:10,23). All need a Savior, but not all have faith as God gives us free will (2Peter 2:10).
Of course, the verse quoted by the questioner is out of context, which renders the question irrelevant. I am glad to see Don saying here that believers are washed and forgiven for all their sins. But this does, however, appear to contradict his answer #153.

182. "Have we not all one Father? Hath not one God created us?" -- (Mal. 2:10)
Duh. Yes of course.
There's no need to be insulting. Oh, too late!

183. If God be the Father of all men, will He do less for His children than earthly parents would do for theirs?
No. God manifested Himself in the flesh (1Timothy 3:16, John1:14) to die on the cross for the sins of the world. The payment has been paid (past tense emphasized). Will all receive this free gift? For the 50th time: NO. Because God gives us all freewill (2 Peter 2:10).
Funny, it was the 50th time back at question #121! It is getting tedious hearing that mantra-like extolling of free will. Here's what the God's Word has to say the deity of God and His ability to direct the actions of mankind, denying the fiction of free will:
"There are many devices in a man's heart; nevertheless the counsel of the LORD, that shall stand" (Prov. 19:21).
"The preparations of the heart in man, and the answer of the tongue, is from the LORD" (Prov. 16:1).
"A man's heart deviseth his way: but the LORD directeth his steps" (Prov. 16:9).
"The king's heart is in the hand of the LORD, as the rivers of water: he turneth it whithersoever he will" (Prov. 21:1).
"There is no wisdom nor understanding nor counsel against the LORD" (Prov. 21:30).
"And Joseph said unto his brethren, Come near to me, I pray you. And they came near. And he said, I am Joseph your brother, whom ye sold into Egypt. . . So now it was not you that sent me hither, but God: and he hath made me a father to Pharaoh, and lord of all his house, and a ruler throughout all the land of Egypt" (Genesis 45:4,8).
"The LORD of hosts hath sworn, saying, Surely as I have thought, so shall it come to pass; and as I have purposed, so shall it stand: . . . This is the purpose that is purposed upon the whole earth: and this is the hand that is stretched out upon all the nations. For the LORD of hosts hath purposed, and who shall disannul it? and his hand is stretched out, and who shall turn it back?" (Isaiah 14:24,26,27).
"Remember the former things of old: for I am God, and there is none else; I am God, and there is none like me, Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying, My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure:" (Isaiah 46:9,10).
"And all the inhabitants of the earth are reputed as nothing: and he doeth according to his will in the army of heaven, and among the inhabitants of the earth: and none can stay his hand, or say unto him, What doest thou?" (Daniel 4:35).
"For of a truth against thy holy child Jesus, whom thou hast anointed, both Herod, and Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles, and the people of Israel, were gathered together, For to do whatsoever thy hand and thy counsel determined before to be done" (Acts 4:27,28).
" So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy (Romans 9:16).
"In whom also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestinated according to the purpose of him who worketh all things after the counsel of his own will:" (Ephesians 1:11).

184. Is it true that God punishes us "for our profit, that we might be partakers of his holiness?" -- (Heb. 12:11)
Yes----the key word: "...we..." Who is we? Are those only believers? Yes.
No. The keyword is chastening, not punishment, as suggested by the questioner. The purpose is correction. God's intention is positive. Since God is no respecter of persons, His intention to all is corrective, and will be revealed to be so in the end, at the consummation when God is All in all.

185. Would endless punishment be for our profit?
Romans 6:23 For the wages of sin [is] death; but the gift of God [is] eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord. For unbelievers: yes. Believers are completely forgiven of all sins and therefore are not punished for they never see death.
Endless punishment would be to no one's profit.

186. Would endless punishment "yield the peaceable fruits of righteousness unto them who are exercised thereby?"
Punishment does not make anyone righteous nor can punishment pay the penalty of sin. Show me one verse in the bible that teaches this. Only the blood of Jesus Christ cleanses us from all unrighteousness. Do all accept this? NO. Therefore, they choose damnation.
Endless punishment would not be corrective, or positive, and so would not produce the same fruit as the chastening believers endure, as quoted here from Heb. 12:11. Don is correct that eternal punishment has no such positive goal. Sin is cleansed only by the blood of Christ, which has been accomplished already for all the sins of all mankind (1 John 2:2), to be realized by all in due time (Titus 2:11, 1 Tim. 2:6).

187. Is there an afterward to eternity? -- (Heb. 12:11)
No. Eternity is infinite. You yourself believe this also by quoting Psalms 102:27.
Of course this question is based on the quotation in the previous question which does not apply at all to "eternity," and therefore makes no sense. Psalm 102:27 has not, in fact, been quoted. Eternity, as an English word, means infinite duration. But that word appears nowhere in the Sacred Scriptures. Neither aion, the noun, nor aionios, its adjective, carry the meaning of eternity, even though they are mistakenly translated "age," "world," "ever," "forever," "everlasting," "eternal," among other things. Both of these words, in all of their occurrences, refer to limited periods of time.

188. Can any doctrine be too good to be true?
Yes. Scripture repeatedly warns against false teachers and those with itching ears.
Obviously. Truth is what the Word of God says, not what we want it to say.

189. Will God contend forever and be always wroth? -- (Isa. 62:16)
No. That is why sin is burned at judgment.
Make up your mind, please. Is sin burned, or sinners? Is sin destroyed, or does it continue to exist for eternity. You have given contradictory answers on these things.

190. Will the Lord cast off forever? -- (Lam. 3:31-33)
Context of the verse of chapter 3 is entirely written for those that belong to the LORD. Those that die apart from Him will die in their sins (John 8:24).
Don is correct about the context of this verse. Even the verse he quotes is true, in it's own context, but it doesn't contradict the teaching of the Scriptures about God's will, intention, and ability to save all mankind, and reconcile the universe, all through the blood of Christ.

191. Can he be a Christian who worships the Lord through fear of the devil?
The power of death has no dominion over a believer once he/she has accepted Christ, because Christ has already risen!
For many, Christianity is simply "fire insurance." They are brought to faith, assuming it is real faith, through fear of hell. How people are brought to faith is God's business. Yes, a person can be a Christian, having first been presented by the erroneous teaching of hell and eternal torment.

192. Can he be a Christian who affirms that if he believed in the salvation of all men, he would not worship God?
He is not a Christian. Quite simple. Because of several reasons: salvation of all would require that hell is temporary. However, this dilemma also makes God temporary and the resurrected body also temporary. God is not temporary, God is eternal. When one worships, one must worship Him in spirit and in truth or your worship is in vain (John 4:24). So, no one has eternal life, for all will inherit a temporary body. The attributes of hell and the attributes of God in regards to 'aion' are identical. A paradox is created when one attempts to teach universalism. It is impossible.
A Christian is one because he believes the Gospel, God's power for salvation. Many Christians also believe some silly things, and make some absurd statements. Apparently Don believes that whether a person is a Christian depends on the orthodoxy of his doctrine, not on his faith in Christ alone. He also misunderstands the Greek word aionios. It is not a word of duration, but an adjective, a descriptive word denoting quality. There is no paradox in believing that God will save all mankind. God is eternal by virtue of the definition of the term God, and in accord with the entire teaching of Scripture. God is also eonian by virtue of His relationship to the eons, as their Creator, which is what eonian means in the only place where that term is used of God in Scripture (Romans 16:26). I believe "eternal" is an incorrect translation. That doesn't mean that I believe that God is less than eternal. Believers are made immortal at the resurrection. That means we will never die. There's nothing temporary about that. So even if I do translate "eternal life" as "eonian life" or life of the eons, that doesn't mean I am limiting our resurrection life. Judgment, or punishment, on the other hand are clearly temporary, since it is the stated intention of God to save, vivify and reconcile all. No paradox, simply allowing us to believe all of God's word, and not have to resort to the contradictions and credulity which have been presented here under the name free will, which has so defamed God, and reduced Him to a weak and powerless caricature.

193. Can he be a Christian who inquires, "if all men are to be saved, what use is there in being virtuous?"
No, he is not a Christian. Christ taught the remission and forgiveness of sins, repentance of one's sins and believing in your heart that Jesus is LORD. Then believing in your heart that He rose from the dead. Because of several reasons: salvation of all would require that hell is temporary. However, this dilemma also makes God temporary and the resurrected body also temporary. God is not temporary, God is eternal. When one worships, one must worship Him in spirit and in truth or your worship is in vain (John 4:24). So, no one has eternal life, for all will inherit a temporary body. The attributes of hell and the attributes of God in regards to 'aion' are identical. A paradox is created when one attempts to teach universalism. It is impossible.
See my above answer #192.

194. Some persons say, that if they did not believe in endless punishment, they would take their fill of sin. How much sin would it take to fill a Christian?
A Christian cannot die spiritually from sin, but will suffer the consequences of sin. An unbeliever suffers eternal separation as well as suffering from the consequences of sin. Sin causes death and separation from God, also the pleasure of sin only lasts for a season. How long is this season? Proverbs 27:1 Boast not thyself of to morrow; for thou knowest not what a day may bring forth. Isaiah 55:6 Seek ye the LORD while he may be found, call ye upon him while he is near:
Don's first sentence is true. The rest is not. Enough said.

195. If "the goodness of God leadeth to repentance," why should His eternal wrath be preached to sinners?
Only to those who will accept this free gift of salvation (Ephesians 2:8-9). Because they can choose between good and evil (2 Peter 2:10). Self-willed means self-willed against God's will (2 Peter2:10). When a Christian sins, is this God's will or Man's will?
The question, of course, involves the content of gospel preaching. It should not include falsehoods, like eternal torment, or hell. These elements are totally lacking from the writings of the Apostle Paul. The presentation of the gospel is not an offer to be accepted. It is a proclamation to be believed. Free will has nothing to do with it. ". . . as many as [are] ordained to eternal life [will] believe. . ." (Acts 13:48).

196. If "the goodness of God leadeth to repentance," why should it not be supposed that repentance leadeth to the goodness of God?
How can one repent without first knowing God? That is utterly ridiculous and nowhere taught in scripture. God gives everyone ever created, the knowledge and understanding of Him (Romans 1:20). That is why all creation has no excuse. God will give anyone faith in Him if they ask for forgiveness of their sins. Not all will ask. Some are self-willed (2Peter 2:10).
The logic of this question fails me. No comment.

197. If "the goodness of God leadeth to repentance," are not the impenitent the objects of His goodness?
Yes, absolutely! God gives everyone ever created, the knowledge and understanding of Him (Romans 1:20). That is why all creation has no excuse. God will give anyone faith in Him if they ask for forgiveness of their sins. Not all will ask. Some are self-willed (2Peter 2:10).
The logic of this question fails me. No comment.

198. Is not the goodness of God co-extensive and co-eternal with His wisdom and power?
Yes.
Correct.

199. As the wisdom of God can never change to folly, nor His power to weakness, will His goodness ever change to hatred?
No. Because God hates sin. God has never changed from all eternity nor will He ever change from hating sin. However, mankind chooses to sin for they are self-willed (2 Peter2:10).
More theological doubletalk, that God has hated sin eternally. In his answer #80, Don said, "Sin did not exist in the Garden of Eden! Everything God created up until the entrance of sin upon mankind was pronounced 'good' by God." How could God hate sin before it existed? Further, mankind chooses to sin because they are constituted sinners, they can do nothing else, until God positively draws them to Himself, grants them faith to believe the evangel, and saves them. ". . . as many as [are] ordained to eternal life [will] believe. . ." (Acts 13:48).

200. Can Deity be universally and eternally good, if endless misery be true for a single soul?
Yes and already answered in questions #2, #3, #7, #10, and countless other times.
Answered incorrectly, I might add. The correct answer is "No."

201. If all men deserve endless punishment, would it not be right for God to inflict it? All unbelievers deserve endless punishment.
Believers DO deserve endless punishment, but by the grace of God, we are saved from His wrath by believing in Him (John 3:16-18). Because they can choose between good and evil (2Peter 2:10). Self-willed means self-willed against God's will (2Peter2:10). When a Christian sins, is this God's will or Man's will?
If all men deserved endless punishment, then surely, it would be right for God to inflict it. But all men do not deserve endless punishment. Mankind has never been threatened with, or warned about, endless punishment. Further mankind's fate has been determined by the actions of two individuals, Adam and Christ. Adam's sin, in Eden, brought in sin and death; as a result all his descendants are mortal dying sinners; we have no choice. Christ's obedience, even to the death of the cross, brought salvation and life, which will accrue to the entire human race, not all at once, but all in due time.

202. "Shall not the Judge of all the earth do right?"
Yes.
Absolutely.

203. If it would be right for God to punish all men eternally, would it not be wrong for Him not to do it?
If Jesus Christ did not die on the cross for our sins then your answer is yes, because it would be a sin for God not to punish sin. That is a false balance and unjust.
It would be right only if we deserved it. It would be wrong if we did not. Jesus Christ indeed did die, and is the propitiation . . . not for our sins only, but for the sins of the whole world (1 John 2:2).

204. As the infliction of endless misery would be returning evil for evil, would it be right for Deity to inflict it?
Judging sin for what it is, is not evil. It is righteous judgment. God is returning righteous judgment unto evil. The wages of sin is death (Romans 6:23) and God warns us.
See my answer to questions #11 and #12.

205. If the return of evil for evil be right in Deity, would it not be equally right in man?
Man is incapable of doing anything good in the eyes of God. Mans righteousness are as dirty filthy rags (Isaiah 64:6).
See my answer to questions #11 and #12.

206. As "fear hath torment," and true religion is happiness, can fear produce true religion?
Scripture no where teaches this. Knowing, believing and following JESUS is true happiness. James 1:26 If any man among you seem to be religious, and bridleth not his tongue, but deceiveth his own heart, this man's religion [is] vain.
James 1:27 Pure religion and undefiled before God and the Father is this, To visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction, [and] to keep himself unspotted from the world.
This question is based on incorrect exegesis.

207. As "perfect love casteth out fear," will not fear cast out perfect love?
No. Perfect love is an attribute of God. There is no counsel against the LORD, nor power against Him. Fear is not an attribute of God, for it is of satan.
This question is based on incorrect exegesis. Interesting quotation "There is no wisdom nor understanding nor counsel against the LORD" (Prov. 21:30). It surely flies in the face of free will. See my answer #183.

208. Can fear imbue the soul with perfect love?
No.
Correct answer.

209. Must not they who "believe and tremble," be possessed of the faith of devils?
James 2:19 says that demons do believe and tremble, but you are forgetting that everything God made in the heavens and the earth was all good (Genesis 1:31). 1/3 of heaven fell with lucifer by his own deception of lies. lucifer and his angels WERE in heaven, they have seen the glory of God face-to-face. So of course they believe in God---they saw Him. They rejected God however, for they left their first estate (2Peter2:4). This does not negate believing in Jesus Christ.
This question is based on incorrect exegesis.

210. Does the belief of endless misery cause the believer to "rejoice with joy unspeakable and full of glory?" -- (1 Pet. 1:8)
Yes! Isaiah 14:16. For death, pain, crying, sorrow will no longer be remembered nor exist in heaven after satan is cast in the lake of fire. (Revelation 21:4).
Only the hard-hearted, who misrepresent and libel God.

211. Can a belief of any thing short of universal salvation, fill the soul with "joy and peace?"
Already answered in question #210.
Only in the hard-hearted, who misrepresent and libel God.

212. Will not the devil and all his works be destroyed? -- (Heb. 2:14; 1 John 3:8)
Yes and the proof is in Revelation 21:4-10 I might add.
See the next question.

213. Will not death, the last enemy, be swallowed up in victory and destroyed? -- (Isa. 25:6-8; 1 Cor. 15:26-54)
Don't you believe Revelation 21:4? Or do you think that God is pulling your leg!?
". . . that through death He (Jesus) might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;" (Hebrews 2:14).
". . . the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil" (1 John 3:8).
"Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet. The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all" (1 Corinthians 5:24-28).
"For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell; And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself; by him, I say, whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven" (Col. 1:19-20).

From these passages we learn the following:
The devil, the Adversary, incorrectly called "Lucifer," did not "fall." He sinned from the beginning. He is an enemy of God, and must be included among the enemies reconciled to God by the blood of Christ's cross, one of those "in heaven."
The length of the reign of Christ is specifically stated to last only until all God's enemies have been "put under His feet," subjugated, destroyed. The very last enemy will be death. This cannot be referring to the second coming and our resurrection. It cannot describe anything which takes place in the book of Revelation, not even Rev. 21:4, for death continues to exist to the very end of that book, and Christ continues to reign.
Since death is the last enemy, then Satan must be reconciled to God prior to the destruction of death, and the subsequent emptying of death, and the presentation of the whole reconciled universe to God, when God becomes All in all

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